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emmasim [6.3K]
3 years ago
8

A project has an initial cost of $2,400. The cash inflows are $0, $1,600, $1,100, and $700 over the next four years, respectivel

y. What is the payback period?
Business
1 answer:
lesya692 [45]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

It will take 2.73 years to cover the initial investment.

Explanation:

<u>The payback period is the time required to cover the initial investment:</u>

Year 1= 0 - 2,400= -2,400

Year 2= 1,600 - 2,400= -800

Year 3= 1,100 - 800= $300

<u>To be more accurate:</u>

(800/1,100)= 0.73

It will take 2.73 years to cover the initial investment.

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Motors is a chain of car dealerships. Sales in the fourth quarter of last year were $4,600,000. Suppose management projects that
MariettaO [177]

Answer:

<u>Budgeted Income Statement for each of the four quarters and for the entire year</u>

Quarter                        1st                    2nd                3rd                  4th

Sales                     $4,738,000    $5,069,660    $5,323,143     $5,536,069

Cost of Sales       ($2,132,100)     ($2,281,347)  ($2,395,414)     ($2,491,231)

Gross Profit          $2,605,900     $2,788,313    $2,927,729     $3,044,838

Operating Costs  ($1,421,400)    ($1,520,898)  ($1,330,786)      ($1,107,214)

Operating Profit    $1,184,500      $1,267,415     $1,596,943      $1,937,624

Explanation:

Pay attention to the calculation of the following amounts :

  1. Sales - These are based on increments per quarter
  2. Cost of Sales - The Cost for quarter is at 45% of Revenue
  3. Operating Costs - Based on Sales amounts ( 30 % in the first two quarters , 25% in third and 20% in the 4th quarter.)
6 0
3 years ago
What is an overdraft? A. Not making deposits frequently enough B. Making purchases at too many different retailers C. Going belo
svp [43]

Answer:

D. Spending more money than you have in your account

Explanation:

An overdraft occurs when money is withdrawn from a bank account and the available balance goes below zero. In this situation the account is said to be "overdrawn".

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
can frictional unemployment by itself explain the fact that the late 2010s saw more job openings than unemployed workers
neonofarm [45]

Answer:

Frictional unemployment cannot by itself explain the fact that the late 2010s saw more job openings than unemployed workers.

Instead, frictional unemployment points to the fact that some people are unemployed because they are just entering the labor market for the first time after a long period of absence.

Explanation:

As a part of natural unemployment, frictional unemployment arises when workers search for new jobs or transition from one job to another.  During economic recession, there is no increase in frictional unemployment.  Typical examples of frictional unemployment are caused by graduating students who join the labor force and are unemployed until they find work and parents who rejoin the workforce after taking sometime to stay at home and raise their children.

4 0
2 years ago
Assume there are two countries: South Korea and the United States. South Korea grows at 4% and the United States grows at 1%. Fo
alisha [4.7K]

Answer:

The US income will be $12,201 and South Korea's income will be $21,911. US income will grow by multiple of 1.2 while South Korea's GDP will grow by multiples of 2.19.

Explanation:

Initial income of both the countries is $10,000.

Growth rate of South Korea is 4%.

Growth rate of US is 1%.

In 20 years, South Korea's income will be,

=Initial income*(1+growth rate)^{n}

=$10,000*(1+0.04)^{20}

=$10,000*2.1911

=$21,911

Similarly, we can find US income.

=Initial income*(1+growth rate)^{n}

=$10,000*(1+0.01)^{20}

=$10,000*1.2201

=$12,201

So, South Korea's income is $21,911 while US's income is $12,201.

South Korea's income grows by the multiples of 2.1911. While, US's income grows by the multiples of 1.2201

4 0
3 years ago
A trader buys a call option with a strike price of $30 for $3. Does the trader ever exercise the option and lose money on the tr
stepladder [879]

Answer:

The trader exercises the option and loses money on the trade if the stock price is between $30 and $33 at option maturity.  

Explanation:

A call option is the right to buy an asset at an agreed price on the maturity date. This agreed price is known as the strike price.

In the given scenario, the strike price is $30. The trader pays an additional $3 for the right to exercise the option, thus paying a total of $33 for the option.

Now, if the asset price on maturity date is greater than $30, the trader shall exercise the option and buy the asset. This is because the market price of the asset is greater than the price the trader pays for it, resulting in a favorable situation for the trader.

However, the trader paid a total of $33 for the stock. Hence, the trader shall lose money on the trade as long as the asset price is below $33.

Therefore,  if the asset price upon maturity is between $30 and $33, the trader shall exercise the option but lose money on the trade.

3 0
3 years ago
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