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Korvikt [17]
3 years ago
9

The capital gains (losses) netting process for taxpayers without 25 or 28 percent capital gains requires them to (1) net short-t

erm gains and losses, (2) net long-term gains and losses, and (3) net the outcome of steps (1) and (2) if they are of similar sign. Group startsTrue or FalseTrue, unselectedFalse, unselected
Business
1 answer:
elena55 [62]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

False

Explanation:

Capital gains and losses netting will have no effect on tax payable. The individual impact on tax will be same as of netting the gains and losses. The net outcome of the tax will be remain un impacted.

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Beginning Work in Process Inventory was 10,000 units that were 20% complete and 40,000 units started, with ending Work in Proces
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

Material EUP = 5000

Conversion Costs EUP = 51,200

Explanation:

Under weighted average method

Beginning Work in Process Inventory            10,000

Units Started                                                 <u>  = 40,000</u>

Units to account for                                           <u>50,000</u>

<em><u>In the Work In Process for Conversion Costs</u></em>

Beginning Work In Process (10,000*20 %)   = 2000 were complete

Work done on beginning inventory = 10,000- 2,000= 8,000

Units Started                                                   = 40,000

Add Ending Inventory (8000*40%)                 <u> 3200</u>

Units to account for =                                     <u>51,200</u>

5 0
3 years ago
Uma has been given the task of arranging for five-day conference
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

I think option planning

5 0
2 years ago
A cash-strapped young professional offers to buy your car with four, equal annual payments of $3,000, beginning 2 years from tod
kiruha [24]

Answer:

This means that receiving 9000 today is better for us as we will have more at the end of 6 years.

Explanation:

We need to first calculate what is the future value of payments in both scenarios. If we receive $9,000 today and invest it at 10% for 6 years we will have 9000*1.10^6=15,944

If we start reviving cash in 4 annual payments 2 years from now of $3000 we will have to find the future value of each individual payment and add them up.

First payment Future value = 3000*1.10^4=4392 (Money can be invested for 4 years at 10%)

Second payment future value = 3000*1.10^3=3993 (Money can be invested for 3 years at 10%)

Third payment future value = 3000*1.10^2=3630 (Money can be invested for 4 years at 10%)

Fourth payment future value = 3000*1.1=3300

Add them all up = 15315

This means that receiving 9000 today is better for us as we will have more at the end of 6 years.

5 0
3 years ago
Equipment originally costing $100,000 has accumulated depreciation of $65,000. if it is sold for $40,000, the company should rec
son4ous [18]
Hi there
What we need first is the book value of the equipment
The book value is
originally costing - accumulated depreciation
100,000−65,000=35,000

Since the sale price is 40000 and the book value is 35000 This result a gain of 5000 (40000-35000)

Good luck!

4 0
3 years ago
Lagle Corporation has provided the following information: Cost per Unit Cost per Period Direct materials$5.25 Direct labor$3.90
Vikentia [17]

Answer:

$16,050

Explanation:

The computation of the total amount of the period cost is shown below:

= Sales commission per unit × number of units sold + Fixed selling and administrative expense + Variable administrative expense per unit  × number of units sold

= $1.80 × 4,500 units + $6,600 + $0.30 × 4,500 units

= $8,100 + $6,600 + $1,350

= $16,050

7 0
3 years ago
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