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Soloha48 [4]
3 years ago
12

Short Corporation acquired Hathaway, Inc., for $33,520,000. The fair value of all Hathaway's identifiable tangible and intangibl

e assets was $30,000,000. Short will amortize any goodwill over the maximum number of years allowed. What is the annual amortization of goodwill for this acquisition?
Business
1 answer:
sp2606 [1]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

$0

Explanation:

The computation of the annual amortization for goodwill is shown below:

As we know in the case of goodwill, the impairment test is to be done on periodic basis and if there is any fall in the value so the same is to be reported as the impairment loss

So for goodwill, no amortization is to be done

hence, the annual amortization is zero

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HELP ASAP!! GIVING BRAINLIEST! NEED THE LAST ANSWER PLEASE
Kay [80]

Hello, Coolgurl23. Thanks for writing in.

You're asking if with the information given if this is a affordable amount.

The correct answer is NO. You have 700 dollars that you can pay in rent. Therefore, if you add all these costs up - you will get over the 700 dollar limit that is needed for a yes answer.

Therefore, you have NO as your final answer.

Thanks for writing in, best of luck on your assignment Coolgurl23!

4 0
4 years ago
For 2019, Ashley has gross income of $38,350 and a $5,000 long-term capital loss. She claims the standard deduction of $18,350 a
kogti [31]

Answer:

carryover to 2020  = $2000

Explanation:

given data

gross income = $38,350

long-term capital loss = $5,000

standard deduction = $18,350

age = 35 years old

dependent = 2 children

to find out

How much of Ashley $5,000 capital loss carries over to 2020

solution

we know that here for the individual maximum capital loss deduction is

maximum capital loss deduction  = $3000 for household

so that carryover to 2020 will be here

carryover to 2020 = 5000 - 3000 = $2000

5 0
3 years ago
Define liquidity risk and explain how it relates to bonds and bond yields.
nadya68 [22]

Answer:

Liquidity risk is the inability to quickly sell a bond for its full value. This risk exists primarily in thinly traded issues. Default risk is the likelihood the issuer will default on its bond obligations and is the basis for bond ratings.

Liquidity is a prime determiner of yield spreads, explaining up to half of the cross-sectional variation in spread levels and up to two times the cross-sectional variation in spread changes that is explained by the effects of credit rating alone.

Liquidity risk Liquidity refers to the investor's ability to sell a bond quickly and at an efficient price, as reflected in the bid-ask spread. High-yield bonds can sometimes be less liquid than investment-grade bonds, depending on the issuer and the market conditions at any given time.

(If some parts overlap/relate to the exactly to other parts, I'm sorry. But there ya go !)

5 0
3 years ago
Retailers of all sizes can explore cpfr as a strategic option, but in order to be scalable, ________ is needed.
MariettaO [177]
Technology is needed.
6 0
3 years ago
Chicken Can has net sales revenue of $1,420,000, cost of goods sold of $761,700, and all other expenses of $307,000. The beginni
kotykmax [81]

Answer:

The fixed asset turnover ratio is closest to 3.62.

Explanation:

The fixed asset turnover ratio can be calculated using the following formula:

Fixed asset turnover ratio = Net sales revenue / Average fixed assets …….. (1)

Where:

Net sales revenue = $1,420,000

Average fixed assets = (Beginning balance of fixed assets + Ending balance of fixed assets) / 2 = ($378,000 + $406,000) / 2 = $392,000

Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:

Fixed asset turnover ratio = $1,420,000 / $392,000 = 3.62

Therefore, the fixed asset turnover ratio is closest to 3.62.

8 0
3 years ago
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