Answer:
Hello! I hope I am correct! :)
Step-by-step explanation:
Let’s first calculate the black circle & the white space.
Since there is more white space than the black circle, we already know that the white space will have more probability.
These are the steps you need to do, in order to so love this problem:
1. Find the area of both, the white space and the black circle.
2. Divide both of them by the area of the square.
3. Do all these steps to find the probability/hitting.
Part A:
Black circle: ( π *1^2) / ( π 5^2) = 1/25 = .04 or 3.14% chance.
So we can tell it’s close to zero.
Part B: 1 - .04 = 0.96 or 97%
This is close to one.
(Remember I am not saying the exact, it’s a estimate)
Brainliest would be appreciated!
Hope this helps! :)
By; BrainlyAnime
Answer: you do the one
Step-by-step explanation:
Yeah
The answer would be A) less than 1,000 Dollars
Value
Depreciation is defined as the reduction in value of an
asset over time. In this case, value reduction is due to wear and tear of an
equipment (bicycle).
a. The depreciation value would simply be the difference
in initial and salvage value divided by time in years.
Depreciation = (Initial value – Salvage value) / Number
of years
b. Substituting the given values into the equation where:
Initial value = $1200
Salvage value = $940
Number of years = 10 months = 10/12 years
Calculating:
Depreciation = ($1200 - $940) / (10/12 years)
Depreciation = $312 / year
or
<span>Depreciation = $26 / month</span>
