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Nata [24]
3 years ago
8

The wealth effect refers to the fact that

Business
1 answer:
Sloan [31]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

a. when the price level falls, the real value of household wealth rises, and so will consumption.

Explanation:

A wealth gap is the difference between the richest and poorest citizens living in a geographical location based on the level of their assets and net worth i.e assets minus their debts. Also, these informations about the citizens when generated by the government are typically used for formulating economic policies, plan and financial budgets.

Wealth effect is a behavioral economics theory (psychological phenomenon) which states that an increase or decrease in the value of an asset such as bonds, stocks, property, etc., would result in an increase or decrease in consumer spending respectively.

This ultimately implies that, the wealth effect refers to the fact that when the price level falls, the real value of household wealth rises, and so will consumption. Thus, it is mainly focused on examining how a change (increase or decrease) in personal wealth of a household influences (affects) economic growth and by extension consumer spending over a specific period of time.

In conclusion, when there is an overall increase in the performance of an asset, consumer spending would rise and increase ultimately.

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Your firm has net income of $245 on total sales of $1,080. Costs are $610 and depreciation is $120. The tax rate is 30 percent.
RSB [31]

Answer:

the operating cash flow is $365

Explanation:

the computation of the operating cash flow is shown below:

operating cash flow is

= Net income + depreciation expense

=  $245 + $120

= $365

hence, the operating cash flow is $365

We simply added the net income and the depreciation expense to determine the operating cash flow  

3 0
2 years ago
A man uses a loan program for small businesses to obtain a loan to help expand his vending machine business. The man borrows ​$2
seraphim [82]

Answer:

The ammount due at the end of the loan adds for $27,456

Explanation:

If the payment is in full at maturity, the man must pay the principal of 26,000 plus the interest during the period of 4 years.

It is important to notice that the loan is done at simple interest, so the interest does not capitalize.

Ammount$-due = 26,000 * (1 + 0.014 * 4) = 27,456

3 0
3 years ago
Look at the picture, which one is the correct answer?
patriot [66]
Probably production function
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The ____ the percentage of an MNC's business conducted by its foreign subsidiaries, the ____ the percentage of a given financial
Xelga [282]

Answer:

greater; greater

Explanation:

The greater the percentage of an MNC's business conducted by its foreign subsidiaries, the greater the percentage of a given financial statement item that is susceptible to translation exposure.

3 0
3 years ago
Professor’s Annuity Corp. offers a lifetime annuity to retiring professors. For a payment of $74,000 at age 65, the firm will pa
photoshop1234 [79]

Answer: 0.10%

Explanation:

The following can be gotten from the question:

n = 15 years

We change it to months. Thus will be:

= 15 × 12

= 180

Present value of an annuity :

= A × {1- (1 +r ) -n ]/r}

74000 = 450 × [ 1- (1 +r) - 180]/r

r= 0.10%

Therefore, the monthly interest rate is 0.10%.

8 0
3 years ago
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