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olga2289 [7]
3 years ago
10

Show instructions

Mathematics
1 answer:
Novosadov [1.4K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

show pic

Step-by-step explanation:

cant see work, attached qork

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Which of the following inequalities matches the graph?
S_A_V [24]
X<-3 would be the answer
7 0
3 years ago
En una hoja de papel cuyo perímetro es de 96 centímetros, se quiere imprimir un volante de manera que el área impresa sea un rec
elixir [45]

Answer:

El perímetro de la región impresa es 72 cm y su área es 288 cm².  

Step-by-step explanation:

1. Tenemos el perímetro de la hoja de papel:

P₁ = 96 cm = 2l₁ + 2a₁  (1)  

Como sabemos el margen superior, inferior, izquierdo y derecho podemos encontrar la relación entre el largo y ancho del rectángulo interno (región impresa) con el largo (l) y ancho (a) del rectángulo externo (hoja de papel):      

l_{2} = l_{1} - (m_{s} + m_{i}) = l_{1} - (3 cm + 2 cm) = l_{1} - 5 cm  (2)            

a_{2} = a_{1} - (m_{d} + m_{iz}) = a_{1} - (2 cm + 5 cm) = a_{1} - 7 cm   (3)    

El perímetro del rectángulo interno es:

P_{2} = 2l_{2} + 2a_{2}    (4)

Introduciendo la ecuación (2) y (3) en (4):

P_{2} = 2l_{2} + 2a_{2} = 2(l_{1} - 5 cm) + 2(a_{1} - 7 cm) = 2l_{1} + 2a_{1} - 10 cm - 14 cm = 96 cm - 24 cm = 72 cm  

Por lo tanto el perímetro del rectángulo interno (región impresa) es 72 cm.

 

2. Ahora para encontrar el área rectángulo interno debemos encontrar el largo y ancho del mismo, sabiendo que:

l_{2} = 2a_{2}     (5)

Introduciendo (5) en (4):

P_{2} = 2l_{2} + 2a_{2} = 2*2a_{2} + 2a_{2} = 6a_{2}

a_{2} = \frac{P_{2}}{6} = \frac{72 cm}{6} = 12 cm

l_{2} = 2a_{2} = 2*12 cm = 24 cm

Entonces el área es:

A_{2} = l_{2}*a_{2} = 12 cm*24 cm = 288 cm^{2}

Por lo tanto el área del rectágulo interno (región impresa) es 288 cm².      

Espero que te sea de utilidad!  

7 0
3 years ago
Find the measures of the missing angles
rodikova [14]
2,7, and 6 are all 70 degrees. 1,4,5, and 8 are all 110 degress
7 0
3 years ago
A binomial experiment has the given number of trials N and the given success probability P.
yan [13]

The probability of the success will be 0.3826.

<h3>What is binomial distribution?</h3>

Bernoulli's trials are those trials which end up randomly either on success (with probability p) or on failures (with probability 1- p = q (say))

The probability that out of n trials, there'd be x successes is given by

\rm P(x) = \: ^nC_xp^x(1-p)^{n-x}

We have

n = 8

p = 0.1

q = 1 – 0.1 = 0.9

x = 1

Then we have

P(1) = ⁸C₁ x (0.1)¹ x (0.9)⁷

P(1) = 0.3826

Learn more about binomial distribution here:

brainly.com/question/13609688

#SPJ1

8 0
2 years ago
UPVOTING ANSWERS!!!
vodomira [7]
Right triangle 
hope this helped 
8 0
3 years ago
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