Answer:
Capital gain = $2.16
Explanation:
The return on equity is the sum of the dividends earned and capital gains made during the holding period of the investment.
Dividend is the proportion of the profit made by a company which is paid to shareholders.
Capital gains is another type of the return made on an equity investment as a result of increase in the value of the shares. It is difference between the cost of the share and the value at the time of disposal.
Therefore, capital gain as follows:
Capital gain = $45.36-43.20
Capital gain = $2.16
Answer:
d.guarantee the company will earn a profit
Explanation:
Internal controls are controls put in place by management to mitigate against identified risk. Risk basically refers to what could go wring in a process. Controls are put in place to mitigate against the risk of error or fraud and do not necessarily prevent the company from making a loss.
Companies make profit or loss based on management's decisions such as where to invest, what time to invest, introduction of a new product, management of cost of sales and operating expenses etc
Internal controls basically consist of policies and procedures that ensure that the company's asset are not misused (fraud), no misrepresentation of revenue (fraud), employees and managers comply with laws and regulations, business information is accurate ( no misrepresentation of records due to error) etc.
Hence Internal control does not consist of policies and procedures that guarantee the company will earn a profit.
The right option is d.
Answer:
The correct answer is 4.33%(approx)
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:\
Face value = $1,000
Market price = $1,278.41
Coupon Rate = 11%
So Coupon Payment = $110
Years to maturity = 10 years
So, we can calculate the after tax cost of debt by using following method:
After Tax Cost of Debt = YTM × ( 1 - Rate of Tax)
Where, YTM = ![\frac{C + \frac{F - P}{T} }{\frac{F + P}{2} }](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7BC%20%2B%20%5Cfrac%7BF%20-%20P%7D%7BT%7D%20%7D%7B%5Cfrac%7BF%20%2B%20P%7D%7B2%7D%20%7D)
So, by putting the following value, we get
YTM = 0.0721
So by putting the value in formula, we get
After Tax Cost of Debt = 0.0721 × ( 1 - 0.4)
= 4.33% (approx)
Answer:
The correct answer is False.
Explanation:
The amortization operation consists of regularly distributing the repayment of the principal (C0), together with the interest accrued throughout the life of the loan. The periodic payments made by the borrower are therefore intended to reimburse, extinguish or amortize the initial capital. This justifies the name of the depreciation transaction and the depreciation terms that are usually assigned to these payments.
If they are terrorist or had a very criminal background