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bekas [8.4K]
3 years ago
7

A banker can lend money at 9.1% compounded monthly or at 9.3% compounded quarterly. If the length of the loan is 15 years, which

type of loan profits the banker more?
Business
1 answer:
Kaylis [27]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

The quarterly compounding is more profitable

Explanation:

We will compare the total payment under monthly payment to that under quarterly payment and the choose the higher one.

This is done as follows:

Monthly interest =  9.1%/12 = 0.758

number of months =15 × 12 = 180

Monthly payment = ( 1-1.00758^(-180))/0.00758=98.04

Total payment = 98.04 × 180 =17,647.31

Quarterly compounding

Quarterly interest rate = (9.3%/12)×3 = 2.325 %

number of quarter = 4×15 = 60

Quarterly payment = (1-1.002325^(-60))/0.002325= 374.17

Total payment = 374.17× 60 = $22,449.91

The quarterly compounding produces total repayment  a higher than the monthly. Hence, the quarterly repayment is more profitable

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The following information was taken from the accounting records of Gorky Corporation for the year ended December 31, Year 1: Cas
Romashka-Z-Leto [24]

Answer:

Cash flow generated from financing activities: 5,200,000

Explanation:

Financing activities are the cash outflow and inflow from the company's debt and equity. Take and repayment of debt, interest on debt and dividend yield will be included in this section:

Cash received from issuance of notes payable    8,000,000

Dividends paid on Gorky common stock                (800,000)

Repayment of notes payable                           <u>     (4,000,000)   </u>

Cash flow generated from financing activities: 5,200,000

The machinery and planyt building are not financing activities. So we ignore them.

8 0
3 years ago
Night Shades Inc. (NSI) manufactures biotech sunglasses. The variable materials cost is $18.50 per unit, and the variable labor
Pavel [41]

Answer:

a. $25.50

b. $9,725,000

c. Cash = 8,888.89 units

   Accounting = 35,555.56 units

Explanation:

a. Variable cost per unit = material cost + labor cost = $18.50 + $7.00 = $25.50

b. Total cost = Fixed + Variable

Variable = $25.50 \times 350,000 = $8,925,000

Fixed = $800,000

Total = $800,000 + $8,925,000 = $9,725,000.00

c. Cash break even point = (Fixed cost - Depreciation)/Contribution per unit

Fixed cost = $800,000

Depreciation = $600,000

Contribution per unit = $48 (Selling price) - $25.50 (Variable cost) = $22.5

Cash Break even point = ($800,000 - $600,000)/$22.5 = 8,888.89 units

Accounting Break Even Point = Total fixed cost/ Contribution per unit

=$800,000/$22.5 = 35,555.56 units

Final Answer

a. $25.50

b. $9,725,000

c. Cash = 8,888.89 units

   Accounting = 35,555.56 units

5 0
3 years ago
Relix, Inc., is a domestic corporation with the following temporary timing differences for the current year. The building deprec
Rina8888 [55]

Answer:

Computation of Provision for income tax expense

Particulars                                                      Amount

Pre tax financial income                                $4,800

Add: Non deductible business meal            $780

Less: Tax exempt interest                            -$2,375

Less: Book tax difference in depreciation  -$16,800

of building and Furniture & fixtures

Add: Accured litigation expenses                 <u>$16,000</u>

Taxable Income                                              <u>$2,405</u>

Provision for income tax Expense

Current Tax (21% of $2,405)                      $505

Deferred tax liability                                   $3,528

Deferred tax asset                                     -<u>$3,360</u>

Total Provision for income tax expense  <u>$673</u>

<u />

Computation of book net income after tax

Particulars                                                    Amount

Book net income before taxes                   $4,800

Less: Provision for income tax expense   -<u>$673</u>

Net Income after tax                                   <u>$4,127</u>

3 0
3 years ago
To avoid problems at work you believe you have to adjust to tge truth a little? Agree or Disagree
meriva
I disagree because you should never change the truth just a little because if you do your lying to yourself and everybody else.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Kent Fuller is in the 34 percent tax bracket. A nontaxable employee benefit with a value of $2,300 would have a tax-equivalent v
Phantasy [73]

Answer:

$3,484.85

Explanation:

Calculation to determine tax-equivalent value

Using this formula

Tax-equivalent value=Nont-taxable amount/(1-Tax rate)

Let plug in the formula

Tax-equivalent value=$2,300/(1-.34)

Tax-equivalent value=$2,300/.66

Tax-equivalent value=$3,484.85

Therefore A nontaxable employee benefit with a value of $2,300 would have a tax-equivalent value of:$3,484.85

6 0
3 years ago
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