Answer:
$1,375
Explanation:
Given the information above, the Ending inventory = Units available - Units sold
Units available = 10 + 25 + 30 + 70 = 80
Units sold = 60
Ending inventory = 80 - 60
Ending inventory = 20
Cost of ending inventory under FIFO
= (15 × $70) + (20 - 15) × $65
= $1,050 + $325
= $1,375
Therefore, the ending inventory cost using FIFO is $1,375
Answer: c. interest rate falls; investment rises
Explanation:
The Fed buying treasury securities from banks is an expansionary policy when the government wants to increase the money in circulation and increase economic growth.
When the Fed buys Treasury securities from banks, this will lead to availability of funds as prices will be pushed higher and there will be a reduction in the interest rate.
Since there is reduction in interest rate, investment will increase as investors will borrow from banks.
Answer:
The maximum interest rate which the bank needs to offer the loan is 3%
Explanation:
The maximum interest rate which the bank needs to offer the loan is computed as:
Maximum interest rate = Amount received in one year - Amount invested today / Amount invested today
where
Amount received in one year is $6,180
Amount invested today is $6,000
Putting the values above:
Maximum interest rate = ($6,180 - $6,000) / $6,000
= $180 / $6,000
= 3%
So, the maximum interest rate is 3% which is needed to offer by banks
Answer:
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $32 per labor hour
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
The estimated factory overhead costs $ 2,496,000. Estimated labor hours 78,000.
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= total estimated overhead costs for the period/ total amount of allocation base
Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= 2496000/78000= $32 per labor hour
Answer:
1. $2.5 million
2. $0
Explanation:
1. Since the book value is more than the generated future cash flows so book value cannot be recovered. In this case, the generated future cash flows are ignored
In this scenario, we compare the values between book value and the fair value of machinery, the difference would be the loss on impairment of the asset
In mathematically,
= Book value - fair value
= $6.5 million - $4.0 million
= $2.5 million
2. In this case, the sum of future cash flows is exceeded than the book value. So, no impairment loss would be recognized i.e zero amount
