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Amiraneli [1.4K]
3 years ago
6

Many of you will live to the year 2100, which is not a leap year. Not all years which are divisible by 4 are leap years. A cente

nnial year (multiple of 100) is a leap year only if it is not divisible by 400. So 2000 is (was) a leap year, 2400 is a leap year, but 2100 and 2200 are not leap years. Non-centennial years which are multiples of 4 are always leap years. If P is the statement
and Q is the statement and R is the statement
P: ”L mod 4 = 0”
Q: ”L mod 100 = 0” R: ”L mod 400 = 0”
Mathematics
1 answer:
Slav-nsk [51]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

For example, the years 1600, 2000, and 2400 are century leap years since those numbers are divisible by 400, while 1700, 1800, 1900, 2100, 2200, and 2300 are common years despite being divisible by 4.

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answer:

0.6826 = 68.26% probability Z will be within one standard deviation of average.

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the z-score of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

What is the probability Z will be within one standard deviation of average?

This is the p-value of Z = 1 subtracted by the p-value of Z = -1.

Z = 1 has a p-value of 0.8413.

Z = -1 has a p-value of 0.1587.

0.8413 - 0.1587 = 0.6826

0.6826 = 68.26% probability Z will be within one standard deviation of average.

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MakcuM [25]

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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