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ANEK [815]
2 years ago
7

Incoterm trong thanh toán quốc tế là gì?

Business
1 answer:
Kobotan [32]2 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Incoterms là một bộ quy tắc thương mại / thương mại được thiết lập bởi Phòng Thương mại quốc tế được sử dụng trong các hợp đồng mua bán quốc tế.

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Smith buys and sells equity securities. On December 15, 2021, Smith purchased $542,000 of Jones shares and elected the fair valu
Kamila [148]

Answer:

$46,000

Explanation:

We can find out the the revaluation gain that need to be reported at the year end by just deducting the the cost of the investment by its current fair value .

DATA

Fair value = 588,000

Cost = 542,000

Revaluation gain = Current fair value - Cost

Revaluation gain = 588,000 - 542,000

Revaluation gain = $46,000

The revaluation gain of $46,000 will be reported in other compreensive income of smith's financial statements.

3 0
3 years ago
Ram Company's after-tax net income was $120. Their interest paid was $50. Assuming the corporate tax is 40%, what is Ram Company
Nataliya [291]

Answer:

5

Explanation:

The formula to compute the interest coverage ratio is shown below:

= (Earning before tax + interest expense) ÷ (interest expense)

where,

Earning before tax equal to

= Net income ÷ (1 - tax rate)

= $120 ÷ (1 - 0.40)

= $200

And interest expense is $50

So, the interest coverage ratio equal to

= ($200 + $50) ÷ ($50)

= 5

4 0
3 years ago
Lisa's opportunity cost rate is 10 percent compounded annually. how much must she deposit in an account today if she wants to re
Aleks04 [339]

Answer:

The answer would be, $21,760

Explanation:

The formula to be used is  that of calculating the present value (PV) of the payment in the ordinary annuity (PMT). PMT are done annually, semi-annually, quarterly or monthly.

PV = PMT * ((1-(1/ (1+r) n))/r)

Where PV is the present value; PMT is the payment in an ordinary annuity; r is the opportunity cost rate; n is the number of years  

in this case, PV= 3,200; r=10%, and n=12

To get PV, substitute the values given above and compute as shown below:

PV  = 3,200*((1-(1/(1+0.10)12))/0.10)

PV= $21,760

With an opportunity cost of 10% compounded annually, Lisa will have to deposit $21,760 today if she wants to be receiving $3,200 at the end of each year for the next 12 years.

5 0
3 years ago
____ is a method for overcoming resistance to organization change. a. Automation b. Centralization c. Management by exception d.
DedPeter [7]

Based on the information given, it can be deduced that the method of overcoming resistance that's illustrated is known as D. Force-field analysis.

Force-field analysis simply means the framework of looking at the factors that resulted in a particular situation. It's vital in knowing the root cause of an issue.

It should be noted that force-field analysis can either drive the movement towards a goal or block the goal. It's a method for overcoming resistance to organizational change.

Learn more about an organization on:

brainly.com/question/24398796

6 0
2 years ago
At the end of the current year, Accounts Receivable has a balance of $675,000; Allowance for Doubtful Accounts has a debit balan
Bad White [126]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

a.

The amount of the adjusting entry for bad debt expense should be

= $45,000 + $5,400

= $50,400

The journal entry should be  

Bad Debt Expense Dr. 50,400

    To Allowance for Doubtful Accounts Cr. 50,400

(Being the bad debt expense is recorded)

b.    

Accounts Receivable 675,000

Allowance for Doubtful Accounts 45,000

Bad Debt Expense 50,400

c.    

Accounts Receivable 675,000

Less: Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  (45,000)

Net realizable value of accounts receivable 630,000

4 0
3 years ago
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