Solution :
Given :
Coupon rate for Bond J = 3%
Coupon rate for Bond K = 9%
YTM = 6 %
Therefore,
The current price for Bond J = $ 718.54 =PV(6%/2,13x2,30/2,1000)x -1
The current price for Bond K = $ 1281.46 =PV(6%/2,13x2,90/2,1000)x -1
If the interest rate by 2%,
Bond J = $ 583.42 = -18.80% (change in bond price)
Bond K = $ 1083.32 = -15.46% (change in bond price)
I think it's freelance but I could be completely wrong
Answer:
A. Liquidity management is a balancing act, managers try to find liquidity levels that are neither too high not too low.
Explanation:
Maintaining proper liquidity is an important financial objective of management. Proper liquidity management demands that an entity should be able to meet his short term financial obligation and making sure that liquid assets of the entity are not idle. In order to achieve this, the best way to go is to maintain a level that is neither too high and not too low. Not too high means the entity is not holding too much cash or liquid assets than it currently need to meet its short term financial obligation.
For example, not keeping too much cash in current account but investing them in interest-earning investment assets.
Not too low means the cash or liquid assets held by an entity should not less than the amount needed to meet its short term financial obligation. For example, making sure that the entity has enough cash or readily convertible liquid assets that can be used to pay vendors, rent, interest and meet other short term financial obligation.
Option B is false because keeping too much does not help to maximize short term earnings which is a feature of proper liquidity management. Option C is wrong because there is no guideline to support that deferring coupon payment won`t attract payment and this does not connote proper liquidity management.
Option D is obviously false and does not describe proper liquidity management.
Answer:
it depends on the business
Explanation:
when the business is small there will be less department but if the business is big then there will be more department
Answer:
No it wont have enough money to build a warehouse in two years.
Explanation:
Firstly we are given that the warehouse is $1 million so the company needs to save this amount of money in two years time.
We know that the company has invested $500000 to date therefore we need to calculate if this $50000 per quarter investment will cover the the other portion for $500000 to meet the warehouse cost of $1 million so we will use the future value annuity formula to calculate this which is :
Fv = C[((1+i)^n -1)/i]
where Fv will be the future value after two years of the $50000 investment
C is the periodic payment of $50000
i is the interest rate per period which is 6% per quarter
n is the number of periods the payment is done here it is 4 x 2years= 8 periods / investments of $50000 that will be done.
thereafter we substitute on the above formula:
Fv = 50000[((1+6%)^8 - 1)/6%]
Fv = $494873.40
then we combine this amount to $500000 to see if it reaches $1 million
$494873.40+ $500000 = $994873.40 which is close to the warehouse cost of $1 million but it does not reach it so the company wont have enough money to purchase the warehouse.
