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Damm [24]
3 years ago
5

A company factored $40,000 of its accounts receivable and was charged a 3% factoring fee. The journal entry to record this trans

action would include a:
Multiple Choice
a. Debit to Cash of $40,000 and a credit to Accounts Receivable of $40,000.
b. Debit to Cash of $38,800, a debit to Factoring Fee Expense of $1,200, and a credit to Accounts Receivable of $40,000.
c. Debit to Cash of $40,000 and a credit to Notes Payable of $40,000.
d. Debit to Cash of $41,200 and a credit to Accounts Receivable of $41,200.
e. Debit to Cash of $40,000, a credit to Factoring Fee Expense of $1,200, and a credit to Accounts Receivable of $38,800.
Business
1 answer:
bezimeni [28]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Correct answer is B, Debit cash $38,800, debit factoring fee expense $1,200 and a credit of Accounts receivable of $40,000

Explanation:

Factoring is one way to raise fund for immediate use of the company. It is a way to sell accounts receivable of the company. The above-mentioned problem is to sell accounts receivable (factored) with the corresponding factoring fee of 3% and that is $1,200 (40,000 x 3%). In effect of this fee, the company will receive cash less than the amount of its accounts receivable sold. The company will record the inflow of cash at $38,800 (40,000 - 3%) and will also recognize an expense incurred during the factoring in the amount of $1,200 and finally will credit the sold accounts receivable in the amount of $40,000.

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Answer:

Price of stock = $49.5

Explanation:

<em>The Dividend Valuation Model(DVM) is a technique used to value the worth of an asset. According to this model, the value of an asset is the sum of the present values of the future cash flows would that arise from the asset discounted at the required rate of return. </em>

If dividend is expected to grow at a given rate , the value of a share is calculated using the formula below:  

Price of stock=Do (1+g)/(k-g)  

Do - dividend in the following year, K- requited rate of return , g- growth rate  

DATA:

D0- 2.7

g- 10%

K- 16%

Price of stock = ( 2.7×1.1)/(0.16-0.1) = 49.5

Price of stock = $49.5

3 0
2 years ago
The payment of accounts payable would
Tema [17]
Decrease assets, decrease liabilities. Accounts payable are what the business owes (liabilities). By paying off accounts payable, the liabilities are decreasing (they owe less) and the assets are also decreasing (because they use assets/cash to pay off the liabilities, so they have less now).

Hope that helps
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3 years ago
What is B2B marketing?
andrew11 [14]

Answer:

Explanation:  As the name suggests, business-to-business marketing refers to the marketing of products or services to other businesses and organizations. It holds several key distinctions from B2C marketing, which is oriented toward consumers.

6 0
2 years ago
Barton Industries has operating income for the year of $3,700,000 and a 25% tax rate. Its total invested capital is $18,000,000
rusak2 [61]

Answer:

1,875,000 Economic Value Added

Explanation:

Net Operating Profit After Taxes  - Invested Capital x Weighted Average Cost of Capital = Economic Value added

This represent the return on the shareholders after their investment return is paid. It is the value generated from the investent resources.

3,700,000 x ( 1- 0.25 ) = 2,775,000 Operating Income after taxes

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3 years ago
Cairns owns 80 percent of the voting stock of Hamilton, Inc. The parent’s interest was acquired several years ago on the date th
tensa zangetsu [6.8K]

Answer:

hello your question has a missing journal entry table attached below is the entry journal table completely filled

Explanation:

Amount of bonds acquired = 40% of original bond

i) Bonds payable = 40% * 1,300,000

                           = $520000

purchase price of bonds = $520000 * 96% ( FACE VALUE )

                                         = $499200

hence the annual amortization

(bonds payable - purchase price of bonds ) / 10 years - 2 years

(520000 - 499200 ) / 8  = $20800/8 = $2600

ii) premium on bonds payable

$20800 - $2600 = $18200

cash amount = $520000 * 8% = $41600

intra entity expense and income table is attached below

from the table

iii) intra-entity interest expense = $39000 and the

iv) intra-entity interest income = $44200

v) investment in bonds

purchase price of bonds + annual amortization

= $499200 + $2600 = $501800

the book value on bonds as at 1st January 2011

=$1300000 * 105% = $1365000

Premium on bonds as at January 1st 2011

= $1365000 - $1300000 = $65000

amortization of premium as at January 1st 2011

=( ($65000) / 10 years ) * 2 years

= $13000

hence the controlling interest in bonds payable = $540800

vi) gains on retirement bonds

=  $540800 - $499200 = $41600

attached below is the journal entry on 31st December 2013

5 0
3 years ago
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