Answer:
C = 6.28 in.
A = 3.14 in.^2
Step-by-step explanation:
C = (pi)d
C = 3.14 * 2 in.
C = 6.28 in.
A = (pi)r^2
r = d/2 = 2 in./2 = 1 in.
A = 3.14 * (1 in.^2)
A = 3.14 in.^2
Find what percent of $39.00 the sale price was.
=> 15/39*100=38.4%
now subtract from 100% to get the mark down percentage.
100-38.4=61.6
Final answer:
Marked down 61.6%
Hope I helped :)
1) Our marbles will be blue, red, and green. You need two fractions that can be multiplied together to make 1/6. There are two sets of numbers that can be multiplied to make 6: 1 and 6, and 2 and 3. If you give the marbles a 1/1 chance of being picked, then there's no way that a 1/6 chance can be present So we need to use a 1/3 and a 1/2 chance. 2 isn't a factor of 6, but 3 is. So we need the 1/3 chance to become apparent first. Therefore, 3 of the marbles will need to be one colour, to make a 1/3 chance of picking them out of the 9. So let's say 3 of the marbles are green. So now you have 8 marbles left, and you need a 1/2 chance of picking another colour. 8/2 = 4, so 4 of the marbles must be another colour, to make a 1/2 chance of picking them. So let's say 4 of the marbles are blue. We know 3 are green and 4 are blue, 3 + 4 is 7, so the last 2 must be red.
The problem could look like this:
A bag contains 4 blue marbles, 2 red marbles, and 3 green marbles. What are the chances she will pick 1 blue and 1 green marble?
You should note that picking the blue first, then the green, will make no difference to the overall probability, it's still 1/6. Don't worry, I checked
2) a - 2% as a probability is 2/100, or 1/50. The chance of two pudding cups, as the two aren't related, both being defective in the same packet are therefore 1/50 * 1/50, or 1/2500.
b - 1,000,000/2500 = 400
400 packages are defective each year
so this is how i was taught the inverse function. f(x) is basicly the same thing as saying y
so y=x over x+3
you switch the top x with y so it turns in to x=y over x+3
the problem should tell you what x equals so substitute x with the number it equals and then solve
here is an example f(x)=x over x+3 and x=14
x=y over x+3
14=y over 14+3
the inverse inverse function would probably be just solve the equation so just substitute the number they give you for x in for x
The rule is -3, then +2
24-3 = 21
21 + 2 = 23
23-3= 20
20+2= 22
22-3= 19
19+2 = 21
21-3= 18
18+2 = 20
