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Olegator [25]
3 years ago
12

Help pls and thank u! ...

Mathematics
1 answer:
RUDIKE [14]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

the first problem has infinite solutions, the second has one, and the third also has infinite solutions!

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The spinner below is spun twice. If the spinner lands on a border, that spin does not count and spin again. It is equally likely
cestrela7 [59]

Answer:

A) 1/6 & 1/12 (with borders) 1/3 & 1/6 (without borders)

B) 1/4 & 1/12 (with borders) 1/2 & 1/6 (without borders)

C) 1/4 & 1/4  (with borders) 1/2 & 1/2 (without borders)

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
Pls help. No files pls. Will give brainliest.
nordsb [41]

To find f(-20), first figure out which piece x = -20 fits with.

Since -20 < -12, x = -20 first in the domain used by the third piece.

For f(-20), treat this function as if it was just f(x) = 3x-7.

f(-20) = 3(-20) -7

         = -60 - 7

         = -67

6 0
3 years ago
How do you multiply a whole number with a mixed number
marta [7]
You would change the whole number to a fraction by putting it over 1 and make the mixed number an improper fraction by multiplying the whole number part of the mixed number by the denominator and then and the numerator
6 0
3 years ago
Write the trigonometric expression sin(sin−1u−tan−1v) as an algebraic expression in u and v. Assume that the variables u and v r
igomit [66]

Answer:

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let sin^-1(u) = A, therefore sinA = u.

We know that sin(theta) = opposite/hypothenuse

Therefore, sinA = u/1 and u is the opposite side to angle A while 1 is the hypotenuse. Draw an acute triangle placing u opposite to angle A and 1 as the hypotenuse. By Pythagoras theorem the adjacent would be √(1 – u²).

By doing this, it means cosA = adjacent/hypotenuse = √(1 – u²)/1 = √(1 – u²)

Also, let tan^-1(v) = B, therefore tanB = v.

We know that tan(theta) = opposite/adjacent

Therefore, tanB = v/1 and v is the opposite side to angle B while 1 is the adjacent. Draw an acute triangle placing v opposite to angle B and 1 as the adjacent. By Pythagoras theorem the hypothenuse would be √(1 + v²).

Therefore, sinB = opposite/hypotenuse = v/√(1 + v²) and cosB = adjacent/hypotenuse = 1/√(1 + v²)

Now,

sin[sin^–1(u) – tan^–1(v)] =

sin(A – B) =

sinAcosB – sinBcosA =

u[1/√(1 + v²)] – [v/√(1 + v²)][√(1 – u²)] =

[u/√(1 + v²)] – [v√(1 – u²)/√1 + v²)] =

[u – v√(1 – u²)]/√(1 + v²).

8 0
3 years ago
The graph shows the amount of water that remains in a barrel after it begins to leak. The variable x represents the number of da
Taya2010 [7]

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

a

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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