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Mathematics

1 answer:

dem82 [27]3 years ago

6 0

Answer:

the inverse is f ^− 1 ( x ) =-2x-30

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

$V= ?\\r = 2\\h = 5\\\pi = 3.14\\\\V = \frac{1}{3} \pi*r^{2} *h\\\\V = \frac{1}{3} *3.14*2^{2} *5\\\\V= \frac{1}{3} *12.56*5\\\\V= \frac{1}{3}* 62.8\\\\V = 20.93333333\\\\\\V = 20.93$

In terms of pi

$V= ?\\r = 2\\h = 5\\V = \frac{1}{3} \pi*r^{2} *h\\\\V= \frac{1}{3} *\pi*2^{2} *5\\\\V = \frac{1}{3} \pi*20\\V= 6.67\pi\\$

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