Answer:
The present value at 11% is $3,902.13,$3,479.85 at 16% and $2,615.57 at 30%
Explanation:
The present value formula is given as :
PV=FV/(1+r)^n
Where FV is the future value of cash flows such as the ones given in the question
r is the rate of return at 11%,16% and 30%
n is the applicable time horizon relevant to each of the cash flow.
Find attached spreadsheet for detailed calculations.
Even when competitive firms are unable to calculate marginal revenue product directly, the pressures of competition in the labor market will push wage rates toward the marginal revenue product of labor.
By comparing the marginal revenue<span> and </span>marginal<span> cost from each unit produced, a </span>firm<span> in a </span>competitive<span> market can </span>determine<span> the </span>profit<span>-maximizing level of production.</span>
Explanation:
The Journal entry is given below:-
1. Purchase Dr, $1,280
To cash $1,280
(being merchandise is purchased)
2. Cash Dr, $115
To Purchase return $115
(Being merchandise is returned)
3. Purchase Dr, $668
Freight In Dr, $43
To Account payable $771
(being Purchase on credit)
4. Account payable $50
To Purchase return $50
(Being purchase return is recorded)
5. Account payable $661
To cash $661
(Being cash is paid)
Answer: The correct answer is "Focus on congratulating the team using each individual’s name and use a more formal tone.".
Explanation: In order for the message to be more appropriate both for a subordinate and for other subordinates, the team and each individual subject should be congratulated with their own name so that they feel part of it and feel that their work is important for the team always in a formal tone that maintains respect among all.
Answer:
b. $.66
Explanation:
The computation of the per share value for the one year is
Given that
Current Price = $43
Possible Prices = $42 and $46
Now
u = [($46 - $43) ÷ $43] + 1
= 1.06977
And
d = 1 - [($42 - $43) ÷ $43]
= 0.9767
And,
Risk-Free Rate = T-Bill Rate = Rf = 4.1 %
Now the up move price probability is
= [(1 + Rf) - d] ÷ [u - d]
= [(1.041) - 0.9767] ÷ [1.06977 - 0.9767]
= 0.69088
And,
Exercise Price = $ 45
Now
If the Price is $42, so Payoff = $0
And
if the Price is $46, so Payoff =is
= ($46 - $45)
= $1
Finally the call price is
= [0.69088 × 1 + (1 - 0.69088) × 0] ÷ 1.041
= $0.66367
= $0.66
