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ipn [44]
2 years ago
5

Help I am being timed!!!!!!!!!

History
1 answer:
photoshop1234 [79]2 years ago
8 0

Answer:

I'm pretty sure you got the right answer

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Is government a state of lawlessness and disorder is considered
alex41 [277]
It is considered anarchy. Because it means a state of no law which allows people to do whatever they want. The government tries to prevent this from happening but it occurs in some small areas. A slight example would be in Ferguson, Missouri in the U.S in which rioters burned buildings and looted stores. That is a form of anarchy, especially if police are not in those areas at the time.
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Why might the constitution give the power to regulate trade among the states to the federal government? explain?
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The Commerce Clause<span> describes an enumerated </span>power<span> listed in the United </span>States Constitution<span> (Article I, Section 8, Clause 3). The clause </span>states<span> that the United </span>States<span> Congress shall have </span>power "To regulate<span> Commerce with foreign Nations, and </span>among<span> the several </span>States<span>, and with the Indian Tribes."</span>
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4 0
2 years ago
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This can be argued either way but I say: Yes.

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With the taxes and with the way the British was handling the colonies, they were better off forming their own government and keeping trade open with the motherland.

The people of the colonies knew what was best for their people.

6 0
3 years ago
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I think the answer is D because the legislative branch controls the judicial and executive and in return they do nothing because they’re not allowed to.

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