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2 years ago

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Mathematics

2 answers:

Sati [7]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

then 380 and then add them

418

Sophie [7]2 years ago

7 0

You start by adding a 0 right under the 8 then you do the same thing you did to get 38.

Then you add. When you add your are supposed to be adding 38 and 380.

The answer will be 148

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Help I just not that smart

Lubov Fominskaja [6]

Answer:

$1\frac{1}{9}$ gallons of paint

Step-by-step explanation:

paint =

2/3 ---- 3/5

x ---- 1

$x = \frac{\frac{2}{3} }{\frac{3}{5} } =\frac{(2)(5)}{(3)(3)} =\frac{10}{9}$

$x=1\frac{1}{9}$

Hope this helps

4 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

Select the appropriate linear equation for the trend line.

Maksim231197 [3]

Answer:

A y = x + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The line starts at 1 on the y-axis so the u intercept will be 1

4 0

1 year ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the justification for step 2 in the solution process?

Maksim231197 [3]

Answer:

Subtract property of deviation becasue your subtracting 6y frrom both sides of the equation.

Step-by-step explanation:

1)Given: 12y - 40 - 4y = 6y - 18

2)Simplify by adding 12y + (-4y): 8y - 40 = 6y - 18

3)Subtract property of deviation: 8y -6y - 40 = 6y -6y - 18

2y - 40 = -18

<em>Hope this helped!</em>

8 0

2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Six less than 2 times “y” is 34 equation form

wel

2y-6=34 is the needed equation

8 0

3 years ago

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Maggie is practicing her penalty kicks for her upcoming soccer game. During the practice, she attempts 10 penalty kicks. If each

arlik [135]

Answer:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176$

$P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072$

$P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013$

And adding we got:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

$X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.65)$

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

$P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}$

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

$nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}$

Solution to the problem

For this case we want to find this probability:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)$

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=8)=(10C8)(0.65)^0 (1-0.65)^{10-8}=0.176$

$P(X=9)=(10C9)(0.65)^1 (1-0.65)^{10-9}=0.072$

$P(X=10)=(10C10)(0.65)^2 (1-0.65)^{10-10}=0.013$

And adding we got:

$P(X \geq 8)= P(X=8) +P(X=9) +P(X=10)= 0.176+0.072+0.013=0.262$

5 0

2 years ago