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Savatey [412]
3 years ago
11

The Chilton Corporation specializes in manufacturing one type of desk lamp. Chilton allocates variable manufacturing overhead co

sts on the basis of machine hours. Chilton budgeted 0.5 machine hours per lamp and allocates overhead at a rate of $1.70 per machine hour. Last year Chilton manufactured 20,000 lamps, used 160,000 machine hours and incurred actual overhead costs of $192,000. What was Chilton's variable manufacturing overhead rate variance last year?
a. $24,000 favorable
b. $24,000 unfavorable
c. $210,900 unfavorable
d. $210,900 favorable
Business
1 answer:
docker41 [41]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance = 80,000 favorable

Explanation:

Given:

Overhead rate variance = $1.70 per hour

Total machine hour = 160,000 hour

Actual overhead costs = $192,000

Find:

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance

Computation:

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance = [Standard overhead rate - Actual overhead rate]Actual hour

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance =[1.7 - (192,000 / 160,000)]160,000

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance = [1.7 - (1.2)]160,000

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance = [0.5]160,000

Variable manufacturing overhead rate variance = 80,000 favorable

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The long-term liability section of Rainbow Digital Corporation’s balance sheet as of December 31, 2020, included 10% bonds havin
Anon25 [30]

Answer:

Loss on early extinguishment = 1,008,357.64

Explanation:

Data:

T = Interest rate = 10% = 0.10

FA = Face amount = $1,000,000

RD = Remaining Discount = $139,294

Y = Yield rate = 12% = 0.12

RT = Retirement Time = 6/12 = 0.5

BA = Bonds at = 101% = 1.01

EE = Gain (loss) on early extinguishment = ?

IE = Interest Expense = ?

D = Discount on bond payable = ?

Calculations:

IE = Y * (FA - RD) * RT

IE = 0.12 * ($1,000,000 - $139,294) * 0.5 = 0.12 *  $860,706 * 0.5 = $51,642.36

D = FA - [IE - (T * FA * RT)]

D = $1,000,000 - [$51,642.36 - (0.10 * $1,000,000 * 0.5)] = $1,000,000 - [$51,642.36 - $50,000] = $1,000,000 - $1,642.36 = $998,357.64

EE = FA - [D + (FA * BA)]

EE = $1,000,000 - [$998,357.64 + ($1,000,000 * 1.01)] = $1,000,000 - [$998,357.64 + $1,010,000] = $1,000,000 - 2,008,357.64 = -1,008,357.64

EE = -1,008,357.64 (Loss)

4 0
3 years ago
Doyle Company issued $226,000 of 10-year, 5 percent bonds on January 1, Year 1. The bonds were issued at face value. Interest is
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

Dr cash                $226,000

Cr Bonds payable                    $226,000

31st December year 1

Dr cash                       $74,000

Cr Lease revenue                     $74,000

Dr interest expense               $11,300

Cr Cash                                                $11,300

31st December year 2

Dr cash                       $74,000

Cr Lease revenue                     $74,000

Dr interest expense               $11,300

Cr Cash                                                $11,300

Explanation:

Upon the receipt of $226,000 from bond issue,cash acount would be debited with $226,000 and bonds payable account would be credited with the same amount.

When land purchased,the land account is debited with $226,000 and cash is credited with $226,000.

The receipt of $74,000 from lease rental means that cash is debited and the lease revenue is credited.

The coupon interest on the bonds=$226,000*5%=$11,300

The coupon interest is debited to interest expense and credited to cash in each of the two years.

find attached t accounts.

Download xlsx
7 0
3 years ago
In January, Stitch, Inc. adopted the dollar-value LIFO method of inventory valuation. At adoption, inventory was valued at $50,0
Dennis_Churaev [7]

Answer:

B. $83,000

Explanation:

Inventory value at adoption = $50,000

Increase in inventory using base year price = $30,000

Current year Price increase = 10%

Increase price = $30,000 + ( $30,000 x 10% )

Increased price inventory = $30,000 + $3,000

Increased price inventory = $33,000

Amount of Inventory reported on balance = Inventory value at adoption + Increase price Inventory

Amount of Inventory to be reported on balance = $50,000 + $33,000

Amount of Inventory to be reported on balance = $83,000

5 0
3 years ago
The Modigliani and Miller (MM) articles implicitly assumed that bankruptcy did not exist. That led to the development of the "tr
yanalaym [24]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

The trade off theory states that capital structure decisions involve a trade off between costs and benefits of debt financing. Originally MM argued that a firm's capital structure should be 100% debt, but after accounting for bankruptcy costs, then the firm's capital structure should be less than 100% debt. Companies must substitute debt for equity at different levels (or vice versa if needed) until they reach a balance where the firm's value is maximized.

6 0
3 years ago
On December 31, 2021, Caria vista inc. appropriately changed its inventory valuation method to FIFO cost from weighted average c
lisov135 [29]

Answer: Increases by $30,800

Explanation:

If the inventory increased by $38,500 in January then that means that the Net Income for the previous period has increased because the Cost of Goods sold for the previous period will be less.

Since the Income for the year 2020 has increased by $38,500, the tax rate needs to be applied to it to see how much goes to retained earnings.

= 38,500 ( 1 - tax rate)

= 38,500 * ( 1 - 20%)

= $30,800

The beginning Retained Earnings balance Increases by $30,800

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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