Answer:
E. Deep venous thrombosis
Step-by-step explanation:
According to a different source, these are the options that come with this question:
A. Depression
B. Smoking history
C. Severe nausea on combined oral contraceptives
D. Lactation history
E. Deep venous thrombosis
This woman would be a good candidate for the progestin-only pill because of her deep venous thrombosis, as contraindications to estrogen include a history of thromboembolic disease. Other contraindications include women who are lactating, women over 35 who smoke or women that have experienced severe nausea when using combined pills.
Using the binomial distribution, the probabilities are given as follows:
a) 0.4159 = 41.59%.
b) 0.5610 = 56.10%.
c) 0.8549 = 85.49%.
<h3>What is the binomial distribution formula?</h3>
The formula is:
![P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%3D%20x%29%20%3D%20C_%7Bn%2Cx%7D.p%5E%7Bx%7D.%281-p%29%5E%7Bn-x%7D)
![C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=C_%7Bn%2Cx%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7Bn%21%7D%7Bx%21%28n-x%29%21%7D)
The parameters are:
- x is the number of successes.
- n is the number of trials.
- p is the probability of a success on a single trial.
For this problem, the values of the parameters are:
n = 3, p = 0.76.
Item a:
The probability is P(X = 2), hence:
![P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%3D%20x%29%20%3D%20C_%7Bn%2Cx%7D.p%5E%7Bx%7D.%281-p%29%5E%7Bn-x%7D)
![P(X = 2) = C_{3,2}.(0.76)^{2}.(0.24)^{1} = 0.4159](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%3D%202%29%20%3D%20C_%7B3%2C2%7D.%280.76%29%5E%7B2%7D.%280.24%29%5E%7B1%7D%20%3D%200.4159)
Item b:
The probability is P(X < 3), hence:
P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3)
In which:
![P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%3D%20x%29%20%3D%20C_%7Bn%2Cx%7D.p%5E%7Bx%7D.%281-p%29%5E%7Bn-x%7D)
![P(X = 3) = C_{3,3}.(0.76)^{3}.(0.24)^{0} = 0.4390](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%3D%203%29%20%3D%20C_%7B3%2C3%7D.%280.76%29%5E%7B3%7D.%280.24%29%5E%7B0%7D%20%3D%200.4390)
Then:
P(X < 3) = 1 - P(X = 3) = 1 - 0.4390 = 0.5610 = 56.10%.
Item c:
The probability is:
![P(X \geq 2) = P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.4159 + 0.4390 = 0.8549](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=P%28X%20%5Cgeq%202%29%20%3D%20P%28X%20%3D%202%29%20%2B%20P%28X%20%3D%203%29%20%3D%200.4159%20%2B%200.4390%20%3D%200.8549)
More can be learned about the binomial distribution at brainly.com/question/24863377
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Answer:
1.5 % is same as 1.50
explanation:
because 1.5 means that the equipment used to measure the number could not measure .It's equal, 1.50 is the same thing just with an added zero.
Answer:
18 units
Step-by-step explanation:
So let's list out the sides.
for the first square let's just call them x
for the second square then they would be x+5 and x-3
So let's write out their areas we will cal the area of the first one z
x*x = z
(x+5)*(x-3) = z+21
since z = x^2 we can set up the second equation as a quadratic.
(x+5)*(x-3) = x^2 + 21
x^2 - 3x + 5x - 15 = x^2 + 21
But look, the x^2s cancel out
2x - 15 = 21
2x = 36
x = 18
Test it out and see if it fits the description, And if you don't understand anything just let me know so I can explain more.
To the nearest tenth : 32.7
To the nearest hundredth : 32.70
Whole Number : 33
Hope this helps!