The answer is false.
Exactly <em>1 </em>tail would mean the probability is 1/2.
It is already in standard form.
Firstly, subtract a^2 on both sides: 
Next, we are going to be using the difference of squares, which is
. Use this on the right side of the equation: 
Lastly, square root both sides of the equation, and <u>your answer will be
</u>
Answer:
8
10
15
16
6
dividing by a fraction with a numerator of one, is the same as multiplying by the denominator
Step-by-step explanation:
I hope this helps :)