Pls help Solve 4 ft = yd

Andre can run 5 miles in 40 minutes. At that rate of speed, how long would it take him to run 10 kilometers? Use the conversion

matrenka [14]

Answer:

50 minutes = B

Step-by-step explanation:

Andre can run 5 miles in 40 minutes

for 1 miles = 40/5 = 8 minutes

for 10 kilometres

1 mile = 1.61 kilometres

x = 10 kilometres

x= (10x1)/1.61= 10/1.61 = 6.21miles

for 1 miles = 40/5 = 8 minutes
6.21 miles = 8 x 6.21 = 49.689 minutes ≈ 50 minutes = B

7 0

4 years ago

The probability is 1 in 4,011,000 that a single auto trip in the United States will result in a fatality. Over a lifetime, an av

IrinaVladis [17]

Answer:

0.0114

Step-by-step explanation:

(a) What is the probability of a fatal accident over a lifetime?

Suppose A be the event of a fatal accident occurring in a single trip.

Given that:

P(1 single auto trip in the United States result in a fatality) = P(A)

Then;

P(A) = 1/4011000

P(A) = 2.493 × 10⁻⁷

Now;

P(1 single auto trip in the United States NOT resulting in a fatality) is:

P( $\mathbf{\overline A}$ ) = 1 - P(A)

P( $\mathbf{\overline A}$ ) = 1 - 2.493 × 10⁻⁷

P( $\mathbf{\overline A}$ ) = 0.9999997507

However, P(fatal accident over a lifetime) = P(at least 1 fatal accident in lifetime i.e. 46000 trips)

= 1 - P(NO fatal accidents in 46000 trips)

Similarly,

P(No fatal accidents over a lifetime) = P(No fatal accident in the 46000 trips) = P(No fatality on the 1st trip and No fatality on the 2nd trip ... and no fatality on the 45999 trip and no fatality on the 46000 trip)

= $[P(\overline A)] ^{46000} \ \ \ (since \ trips \ are \ independent \ events)$

= $[0.9999997507]^{46000}$

= 0.9885977032

Finally;

P(fatal accident over a lifetime) = 1 - 0.9885977032

P(fatal accident over a lifetime) = 0.0114022968

P(fatal accident over a lifetime) ≅ 0.0114

8 0

3 years ago

It is estimated that there are 21 deaths for every 10 million people who use airplanes. A company that sells flight insurance pr

Yuki888 [10]

Answer:

$0.79 profit per person who buys a policy

Step-by-step explanation:

For every 10 million people who buy a policy the expected outcome is

$(21*100,000) = $2,100,000 (21 deaths out of 10 million)

the expected income is

$10,000,000 ($1 per sold policy)

So the expected profit is

$10,000,000 - $2,100,000 = $7,900,000

To obtain how much the insurance company can make for each policy that it sells, we cross multiply

10,000,000 people ---------> $7,900,000 profit

1 person -----------------------> x

and

10,000,000=7,900,000/x and x = $0.79 profit per person who buys a policy

4 0

4 years ago

A mean average of 60 on 8

makkiz [27]

You add up all the numbers then divide the total by how many numbers you had originally

3 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

What is the probability that an individual, selected at random, will score below the mean on any normally distributed characteri

dedylja [7]

Answer:

the probability that an individual, selected at random, will score below the mean on any normally distributed characteristic is just about 0.5.

Step-by-step explanation:

This probability in normal distribution corresponds to z-score of 0. Using normal distribution tables.

P(z < 0) = 1 - P(z ≥ 0) = 1 - 0.5 = 0.5

Which is very logical, to score below the mean on a normal distribution, the probability is just less than 0.5.

3 0

3 years ago