Answer:
The correct answer is d) neither the long-run Phillips curve nor the Classical dichotomy.
Explanation:
The answer that best suits the situation described is the Phillips curve in the short term but not in the long term.
The Phillips curve starts from the principle that the amount of money circulating (commonly called "money supply") has real effects on the economy in the short term. In this way, an increase in the money supply would have a beneficial effect on aggregate demand, as citizens will spend more when their nominal wages are increased (known as “monetary illusion”) and a more favorable framework for investment and investment will be created. that the prospects of rising prices will improve the expectations of corporate profits. The improvement in aggregate demand would result in greater economic growth, and this in turn in the creation of new jobs. This is how an inverse relationship between inflation and unemployment is established, expressed graphically by a downward curve.
Answer:
The future value of a 18-year annuity of $2,000 per period where payments come at the beginning of each period is $59,078.
Explanation:
We apply the formula to calculate future value of annuity to find the future value of 18-year annuity as at the beginning of year 18 ( because payment comes at the beginning of the year):
2,000/5% x (1.05^18 -1) = $56,264.77.
We further compound the future value of 18-year annuity as at the beginning of year 18 for one period to come up with the future value of this annuity as at the end of 18 year time:
56,264.77 x 1.05 = $59,078.
So, the answer is $59,078.
Answer:
A. Frictional Unemployment
B. Structural Unemployment
C. Cyclical Unemployment
Explanation:
A. Frictional Unemployment refers to people moving between jobs which is the case for the first scenario
B. Structural Unemployment is a type of unemployment when structure of the economy changes and outsourcing also comes under this
C. Cyclical Unemployment is caused by the movements of business cycle people are laid off when economy is facing recession i.e decrease in investment.
Answer:
Expense & revenue summary a/c (credit balance) = $3500
Explanation:
1. Dr Expense & revenue summary 52500
Cr Sales discount 1500
Cr Sales return & allowance 3000
Cr Depreciation expense 25000
Cr Salaries expense 23000
(Close expenses to expense & revenue summary a/c)
2. Dr Sales 56000
Cr Expense & revenue summary 56000
(Close sales to expense & revenue summary a/c)
3. Dr Expense & revenue summary a/c 3500
Cr Retained earning a/c 3500
(To close expense & revenue summary a/c)
4. Dr Retained earning 2000
Cr Expense & revenue summary 2000
(Close dividend to expense & revenue summary a/c)d
Answer:
$8,000, and she has to complete 60 days
Explanation:
Whenever money has to be taken out of the first plan, then it is the requirement of IRA to complete the rollover within 60 days, also the amount to be withheld is 20% this is in the case where the amount is directly paid o the concerned participant. Then the person concerned for such payment has to keep 20%
Here in the instance Total amount = $10,000
20% of such = $2,000
Thus, amount received from the administrator = 80% = $10,000 
80% = $8,000
