Hello from MrBillDoesMath!
Answer:
b2 = 5
Discussion:
A = 1/2 h (b1 + b2)
.
Substituting A = 16, h = 4, and b1=3 in the above formula gives:
16 = (1/2) (4)( 3 + b2) => (as (1/2)4 = 2) )
16 = 2 ( 3 + b2) => (divide both sides by 2)
8 = (3 + b2) => (subtract 3 from both sides)
8-3 = b2 =>
5 = b2
Check Area formula:
Does A = 16 = (1/2)(4)(3+5) ?
Does 16 = (1/2) (4)(8) ?
Does 16 = (1/2)(32) ? Yes it does so our calculation for b2 is correct
Thank you,
MrB
Finding the midpoint coordinates of any segment really boils down to finding the midpoints of each individual coordinate.
The x-coordinates of the two points are -12 and -8 - the number halfway between those two is -10, so that'll be the midpoint's x-coordinate. The y-coordinates are -7 and -4 - -5.5 is halfway between these two, so the y-coordinate will be 5.5.
Putting the two together, the midpoint of the segment WT has the coordinates (-10, -5.5).
The given statement is proved by side-angle-side (SAS) theorem.
Yes, if two sides and the included angle of one triangle are congruent to the corresponding parts of another triangle the triangles are congruent.
The statement is proved by SAS theorem
<u>Side-Angle-Side (SAS) theorem: </u>
The triangles are congruent if two sides and the included angle of one triangle are equivalent to two sides and the included angle of another triangle.
Hence, The given statement is proved by side-angle-side (SAS) theorem.
To read more about Angles
brainly.com/question/22472034
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Answer:
84%
Step-by-step explanation:
The empirical rule tells you that 68% of the standard normal distribution is within 1 standard deviation of the mean. The distribution is symmetrical, so the amount in the lower tail is (1 -68%)/2 = 16%.
Since the number you're interested in, 240, is one standard deviation above the mean (200 +40), the percentage of interest is the sum of the area of the central part of the distribution along with the lower tail:
68% + 16% = 84%.
2a + 4 - 7a + a
2a -7a +a +4
-5a + a +4
-4a + 4
-4a + 4 is your answer
hope this helps