Answer:
times interest ratio = EBIT / interest expense
1)
Kringle: TIE ratio = ($40,870 - $10,300 - $350) / $350 = 86.34
Leihman: TIE ratio = ($46,320 - $12,080 - $2,000) / $2,000 = 16.12
2)
Kringle was better able to cover its interest expenses since its TIE ratio is much higher than Leihman's (more than 5 times higher). This means that it is much easier for Kringle to pay off the interests on its debt.
Answer:
The principle of conservation of charge states that the net charge of an isolated system remains constant during any physical process.
Answer: $1000
Explanation:
From the question, we are informed that a customer's restricted margin account shows the following: LMV $30,000 DB $16,000 SMA $0 If the customer sells $2,000 of securities.
Based on the above analysis, the customer can only withdraw $1000. This is because since $2000 worth of securities are sold, half of it which is $1000 will be credited to SMA which is the withdrawable amount.
Answer:
Option (d) is correct.
Explanation:
Given that,
Sales revenue = $470,800.00
Cost of goods sold = $217,766.40
Selling expenses = $86,199.20
Administrative expenses = $74,942.80
Cost of Goods sold (%):
= (Cost of Goods Sold ÷ Sales Revenue) × 100
= (217,766.40 ÷ 470,800.00) × 100
= 46.25%
Therefore, the cost of goods sold percent is 46.25.
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following archives.
Step-by-step explanation:
You will find the procedures, formulas or necessary explanations in the archive attached below. If you have any question ask and I will aclare your doubts kindly.