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NeX [460]
3 years ago
5

What's the function notation for this? And which one is the independent and dependent variable?

Mathematics
1 answer:
frez [133]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:   f(x) = 0.30x + 2.50

This is the same as writing y = 0.30x + 2.50

========================================================

Explanation:

x = number of pounds

y = f(x) = total cost in dollars

1 pound costs $0.30

x pounds cost 0.30x

This is ignoring the entrance fee

Tacking on the entrance fee leads to a total of y = 0.30x + 2.50

------------------

The independent variable is always x and the dependent variable is always y.

The independent variable (number of pounds) determines what the dependent variable (total cost) will be.

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The area of the square is a function of its perimeter. Graph the function on a second sheet of grid paper. Explain whether the f
kolbaska11 [484]
The answer is not a linear equation and the graph is decreasing. sorry i had made a mistake the first time 
4 0
3 years ago
If vectors u,v and w ar linearly indepndnt, will u-v,v-w & u-w also be linearly indpnt? ...?
inna [77]
No they won’t be.Consider the linear combination (1)(u – v) + (1) (v – w) + (-1)(u – w).This will add to 0. But the coefficients aren’t all 0.Therefore, those vectors aren’t linearly independent.
You can try an example of this with (1, 0, 0), (0, 1, 0), and (0, 0, 1), the usual basis vectors of R3.
That method relied on spotting the solution immediately.If you couldn’t see that, then there’s another approach to the problem.
We know that u, v, w are linearly independent vectors.So if au + bv + cw = 0, then a, b, and c are all 0 by definition.
Suppose we wanted to ask whether u – v, v – w, and u – w are linearly independent.Then we’d like to see if there are non-zero coefficients in the linear combinationd(u – v) + e(v – w) + f(u – w) = 0, where d, e, and f are scalars.
Distributing, we get du – dv + ev – ew + fu – fw = 0.Then regrouping by vector: (d + f)u + (-d +e)v + (-e – f)w = 0.
But now we have a linear combo of u, v, and w vectors.Therefore, all the coefficients must be 0.So d + f = 0, -d + e = 0, and –e – f = 0. It turns out that there’s a free variable in this solution.Say you let d be the free variable.Then we see f = -d and e = d.
Then any solution of the form (d, e, f) = (d, d, -d) will make (d + f)u + (-d +e)v + (-e – f)w = 0 a true statement.
Let d = 1 and you get our original solution. You can let d = 2, 3, or anything if you want.

6 0
3 years ago
Wizer.me Simplify the following problem: (30 – 3) = 3​
Alex17521 [72]

Answer:

-10/1 is simplified for 30/3

hope this helps

8 0
3 years ago
Simplify the expression i⁸²
Elza [17]

Answer:

We can use a trick here. Let's look at the first few exponents of i to realize this:

i^0 = 1

i^1 = i

i^2= -1

i^3 = -i

i^4 = 1

i^5 = i

i^6 = -1

i^7 = -i

we can see that the pattern (1, i, -1, -i) repeats. Since 82/2 = 41, and 41 is only divisible by 1, i^41 = i, and i^2 = -1. -1*i = -i, so i^82 = -i.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
You received partial credit in th
Blababa [14]

Answer:

Expected value would be $ 0.896

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

The price of the lottery ticket = $44800000,

Also, the probability of winning the grand prize = .000000020,

Thus, the expected value of the lottery ticket = value of the lottery ticket × probability of getting the lottery ticket

= 44800000 × .000000020

= $0.896

Note : value of lottery ticket = prize amount - cost of each ticket,

Here the cost price of a ticket is not given,

That's why we did not consider it.

5 0
3 years ago
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