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Lelu [443]
3 years ago
15

If there are 624 calories in 3 servings, how many calories are in 1 serving?

Mathematics
2 answers:
erica [24]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

208 calories per serving

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide 624 by 3

zlopas [31]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

208 carlories each serving

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What is the HIGHEST COMMON FACTOR of 36 81
elena55 [62]

Answer: 9

Explanation: 3 x 3 is the gcf of 36 and 81. gcf (36,81) = 9.

7 0
4 years ago
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Please help me!
Virty [35]

Answer:

 2\frac{1}{2} cups

Step-by-step explanation:

Given, a recipe uses 8\frac{3}{4} cups of milk for every 3\frac{1}{2} cups of oatmeal.

So, For each 8.75 cups of milk ,3.5 cups of oatmeal is required.

Or,

we can say 3.5 cups of oatmeal require 8.75 cups of milk.

Thus,

1 Cup of oatmeal will require  \frac{8.75}{3.5} cups of milk.

                                              =   2.5 cups of milk .

Thus answer is 2.5 cups, Which we can write 2 + 0.5 cups

                                                                      =  2\frac{1}{2} cups (In mixed form)

6 0
4 years ago
The metal in a penny is worth about 0.505 cent. How many cents is this written as a fraction
valentinak56 [21]
It would be 505/1000 but If you need it to be reduced it would be 101/200
4 0
3 years ago
About 11% of adult Americans are left-handed. Suppose that two people are randomly selected from this
marshall27 [118]

Answer:

a) P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

b) P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=20, p=0.48)

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

Solution for the problem

Part a

On this case since we select a sample size of n =2 we have the following values for the number of left handed X=0,1,2. We can find the probabilities for each case since we know that p=0.11.

P(X=0)=(2C0)(0.11)^0 (1-0.11)^{2-0}=0.7921  

P(X=1)=(2C1)(0.11)^1 (1-0.11)^{2-1}=0.1958  

P(X=2)=(2C2)(0.11)^2 (1-0.11)^{2-2}=0.0121  

And then we have our probability distribution like this:

X     |       0    |      1     |     2    |

P(X) |  0.7921 | 0.1958 | 0.0121|

Part b

For this case we want this probability:

P(X \geq 1) = P(X=1)+P(X=2) = 0.1958+0.0121=0.2079

8 0
3 years ago
[HELP]
Assoli18 [71]

Answer:

you can give 10 cents in 4 different ways

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