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ozzi
3 years ago
8

Find the value of X help asap plz

Mathematics
2 answers:
timama [110]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

12!! Glad I could help!!

telo118 [61]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

D) 12

Step-by-step explanation:

I would say that this is 12 because the angle x looks the same as the other shown angle.

Hope it helps!

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Angle 4 is 83 degrees
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2 years ago
Solve log x = 2.<br><br> 100<br><br> 1,000<br><br> 2<br><br> 20
dybincka [34]

keeping in mind that when the logarithm base is omitted, the base 10 is assumed.

\textit{exponential form of a logarithm} \\\\ \log_a(b)=y \qquad \implies \qquad a^y= b \\\\[-0.35em] ~\dotfill\\\\ \log(x)=2\implies \log_{10}(x)=2\implies 10^2=x\implies 100=x

5 0
2 years ago
Whats The Answer Marking Brainliest, Please explain your answer:D.......
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

D is the only answer given as a ratio, the rest are not.

5 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
(a) If G is a finite group of even order, show that there must be an element a = e, such that a−1 = a (b) Give an example to sho
Dahasolnce [82]

Answer:

See proof below

Step-by-step explanation:

First, notice that if a≠e and a^-1=a, then a²=e (this is an equivalent way of formulating the problem).

a) Since G has even order, |G|=2n for some positive number n. Let e be the identity element of G. Then A=G\{e} is a set with 2n-1 elements.

Now reason inductively with A by "pairing elements with its inverses":

List A as A={a1,a2,a3,...,a_(2n-1)}. If a1²=e, then we have proved the theorem.

If not, then a1^(-1)≠a1, hence a1^(-1)=aj for some j>1 (it is impossible that a^(-1)=e, since e is the only element in G such that e^(-1)=e). Reorder the elements of A in such a way that a2=a^(-1), therefore a2^(-1)=a1.

Now consider the set A\{a1,a2}={a3,a4,...,a_(2n-1)}. If a3²=e, then we have proved the theorem.

If not, then a3^(-1)≠a1, hence we can reorder this set to get a3^(-1)=a4 (it is impossible that a^(-1)∈{e,a1,a2} because inverses are unique and e^(-1)=e, a1^(-1)=a2, a2^(-1)=a1 and a3∉{e,a1,a2}.

Again, consider A\{a1,a2,a3,a4}={a5,a6,...,a_(2n-1)} and repeat this reasoning. In the k-th step, either we proved the theorem, or obtained that a_(2k-1)^(-1)=a_(2k)

After n-1 steps, if the theorem has not been proven, we end up with the set A\{a1,a2,a3,a4,...,a_(2n-3), a_(2n-2)}={a_(2n-1)}. By process of elimination, we must have that a_(2n-1)^(-1)=a_(2n-1), since this last element was not chosen from any of the previous inverses. Additionally, a_(2n1)≠e by construction. Hence, in any case, the statement holds true.

b) Consider the group (Z3,+), the integers modulo 3 with addition modulo 3. (Z3={0,1,2}). Z3 has odd order, namely |Z3|=3.

Here, e=0. Note that 1²=1+1=2≠e, and 2²=2+2=4mod3=1≠e. Therefore the conclusion of part a) does not hold

7 0
3 years ago
Which expression converts 100inches per minute to feet per minute?
Rzqust [24]
The are 12 inches in a foot. So 100ipm ÷12= fpm :) hope this helps
7 0
3 years ago
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