Answer:
Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900
Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900
Explanation:
An account for allowance for doubtful debts is a contra account created, predicting that certain debtors will not be able to pay for the goods and services they purchased. This may be based on historical experiences. Doubtful debts aren’t officially uncollectible, it is simply an estimation made, but bad debts are, where you have officially written off a certain accounts receivable as uncollectible.
An allowance for doubtful debts is recorded in the balance sheet, directly under accounts receivables. Bad debts are recorded as an expense in the income statement. When there is an allowance for doubtful debts, the bad debts account is debited and the allowance for doubtful debts account is credited.
According to the question, the balance was $2,200 (Cr) in the allowance for doubtful debts account. The initial expected amount for allowance for doubtful debts was $5100 (Cr). This means that the difference was the amount that was declared as uncollectible and officially written off i.e. bad debts. Thus $2900 ($5100 -$2200) would have been confirmed as bad debts.
The entry to record the above transaction is:
Debit : Allowance for doubtful debts = $2900
Credit : Accounts receivables = $2900
The answer is<u> "An experiment."</u>
An experiment refers to a controlled study in which the scientist endeavors to comprehend circumstances and end results connections. The examination is "controlled" as in the analyst controls (1) how subjects are relegated to gatherings and (2) which medicines each gathering gets.
In the analysis stage, the specialist thinks about gathering scores on some reliant variable. In view of the investigation, the scientist makes an inference about whether the treatment (independent variable) causally affected the dependent variable.
Answer: $25078
Explanation:
Firstly, we'll find the real interest rate which will be:
(1 + R) = (1 + r)(1 + h)
(1 + 10%) = (1 + r)(1 + 4.8%)
(1 + 0.1) = (1 + r)(1 + 0.048)
1.1 = (1 + r)(1.048)
r = 4.96%.
Now the annual deposit will be gotten by using the annuity future value which will be:
3 million = C(1.0496^40-1) / 0.0496
3 million = C(5.3995) / 0.0496
3 million = 119.627C
C = 3 million/119.627
C = 25078
Therefore, the real amount that must be deposited each year to achieve the goal is $25078
Answer:
A. 1/3 computers
B. 0.6 computers
Explanation:
A. The opportunity cost incurred by the US to make cars is the number of computers it would have to give up to make a car.
The US can either make 12 cars or 4 computers. For every car made therefore the US forgoes;
= 4/12
= 1/3 computers.
B. The same logic applies to Japan. They can either make 10 cars or 6 computers.
Their opportunity cost for cars is therefore;
= 6/10
= 0.6 computers
the overall hange is a net-gain of 17% as the company's total revunue experienced an overall positive outcome over said two year period. :)
