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Anastasy [175]
3 years ago
5

Pension funds pay lifetime annuities to recipients. If a firm will remain in business indefinitely, the pension obligation will

resemble a perpetuity. Suppose, therefore, that you are managing a pension fund with obligations to make perpetual payments of $3.5 million per year to beneficiaries. The yield to maturity on all bonds is 17.5%.
Required:
a. If the duration of 5-year maturity bonds with coupon rates of 16% (paid annually) is 4 years and the duration of 25-year maturity bonds with coupon rates of 9% (paid annually) is 16 years, how much of each of these coupon bonds (in market value) will you want to hold to both fully fund and immunize your obligation?
b. What will be the par value of your holdings in the 25-year coupon bond?
Business
1 answer:
Solnce55 [7]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Duration of liability (perpetual) = (1 + y) / y

= (1 + 17.5%) / 17.5%

= 6.71

Value of liability = Cash Flow / yield

= $3.5 million / 17.5%

= $20 million

a. Assume you invest w in 5-year bond and 1-w in 25-year bond such that the duration of the portfolio is 6.71

6.71 = w x 4 + (1 - w) x 16

w = (16 - 6.71) / (16 - 4)

w = 77% in 5-year bond

1 - w = 28% in 25 year bond

Market Value of 5 year bond = 77% * $20 million = $15.4 million

Market Value of 20 year bond = 23% * $20 million = $4.6 million

b. Market Price of 20 year bond can be calculated using PV function on a calculator

N = 25, I/Y = 17.5%, PMT = 9, FV = 100

Price = Present Value (25,17.5%, 9 ,100)

Price = 52.29042644

Price = $52.30

Par Value of 25 year bond = Market Value /% Price

Par Value of 25 year bond = $4.6 million / 50.83%

Par Value of 25 year bond = $9,049,774

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notka56 [123]

Answer:

the investment with large cash flow early

Explanation:

This can be illustrated with an example.

There are 2 investments A and B

The cash flows of A =

Cash flow in year 1 = $50,000

Cash flow in year 2 = 0

Cash flow in year 3 = 0

The cash flows of B =

Cash flow in year 1 = 0

Cash flow in year 2 = 0

Cash flow in year 3 = 50,000

Discount rate for both investment is 40%

Present value of A = $35,714.29

Pesent value for B = $18,221.57

It can be seen that the investment with the higher cash flow early has a higher present value

3 0
3 years ago
Miller Corporation issued 6000 shares of its​ $5 par value common stock in payment for attorney services billed at​ $54,000. Mil
Deffense [45]

Answer:Share premium account of $24,000

The provider of attorney services of $30,000

Explanation:

On provision of services, the Attorney services expenses account is debited with $54,000 and the attorney services provider account credited with $54,000

Furthermore a share account is opened for the provider and credited with $30,000 , the share premium is credited $24,000 and a debit transfer is made to his liability account initially credited.

The $24,000 credit to share premium represents the difference between the nominal value of the share of $5 and the market value of $9 multiply by the 30,000 shares he was paid with.

Also a memorandum will be issued to state that 6000 share has been transferred from Miller to the attorney services provider and the shares will be delited from his name and entered in the name of the services provider because the credit of shares to his account does not represents new shares issued but it's the transfer of Miller's shares to him.

4 0
3 years ago
Choose the correct alternative regarding tax revenue:
insens350 [35]

The correct alternative regarding tax revenue:

<u>B-Personal income tax is currently the largest source of government revenue in South Africa.</u>

<u>Direct </u><u>Taxes</u>

  • it is levied on earnings and activities conducted.
  • the burden of tax cannot be shifted in case of direct tax.
  • it is paid directly by individual concerned.
  • it is paid after the income reaches in the hands of the taxpayer
  • Tax collection is difficult.
  • instance income tax, wealth tax etc.

<u>Indirect </u><u>Taxes</u>

  • it is levied on product or services.
  • the burden of tax shifted for indirect taxes
  • It is paid by way of one man or woman however he recovers the same from another person i.e. person who actually bear the tax ultimate consumer.
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  • Tax collection is exceptionally easier
  • Example GST, excise duty custom duty sale tax carrier tax

Learn more about Tax brainly.com/question/16423331

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5 0
2 years ago
3. Once you turn 18, you should regularly check your credit report...
Mazyrski [523]

Answer:

A - For errors or signs of identity fraud

Explanation:

That is the correct answer, good luck, and have a good day.

7 0
2 years ago
Accenture's Security practice makes use of a number of accelerators when building solutions for our clients. What is the purpose
Vilka [71]

Answer:

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Explanation:

Given that accelerator in cybersecurity is a means of enhancing the implementation and information of security measures in a very faster way.

Therefore, the purpose of Accenture's Security practice of using several accelerators when building solutions for their clients is "to deploy and integrate security features in a shorter period of time."

6 0
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