The confidence interval did give convincing evidence that there is difference in the population mean number of pairs of shoes for boys and girls at the school.
<h3>Why does the confidence
interval did give convincing evidence?</h3>
The interval is one that gave a good convincing evidence, based on the fact that the number 0 stands as NO difference ( (girls boys) and thus it is = 0 ).
It is also not not included in this interval and as such, it can mean that the difference in the mean number of shoes owned by girls and the mean number of shoes owned by boys is 0 .
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Yes their is, some people can be hands on learning, or they may use the style of someone telling them how to do it. Theirs also reading to learn. Some other styles as well.
Is there a question to go with this? if so i can potentially help you.
