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BartSMP [9]
3 years ago
6

This is due today!!! Please help!!! C. What number is 40% of 160

Mathematics
1 answer:
Vika [28.1K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

64

Step-by-step explanation:

40% = .4

160*.4 = 64

64 = 40% of 160

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What number am I?
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

The numbers less that 40 which have sum of digits 8 are 17, 26, 35.

Only one of those that has a factor of 7. And that is 35.

So you are 35.

Second way:

The numbers less that 40 which have a factor of 7 are 7,14,21,28,35

Only one of those which has sum of digits as 8. And that is 35.

So you are 35.

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Five less than the qouicent of number of a number and 3 is -7
Nuetrik [128]

Sorry. Had to redo this with the correct answer.

Here it is...

Solve for x by simplifying both sides of the equation, then isolating the variable.

Exact Form:

x = - 2/5 (fraction)

Decimal Form:

x = - 0.4 (decimal)

7 0
3 years ago
if you roll a fair 6-sided die 9 times, what is the probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4?
Kay [80]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.857 = 85.7% probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4.

For each die, there are only two possible outcomes, either a 3 or a 4 is rolled, or it is not. The result of a roll is independent of any other roll, hence, the <em>binomial distribution</em> is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • There are 9 rolls, hence n = 9.
  • Of the six sides, 2 are 3 or 4, hence p = \frac{2}{6} = 0.3333

The desired probability is:

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)

In which:

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

Then

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{9,0}.(0.3333)^{0}.(0.6667)^{9} = 0.026

P(X = 1) = C_{9,1}.(0.3333)^{1}.(0.6667)^{8} = 0.117

Then:

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.026 + 0.117 = 0.143

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.143 = 0.857

0.857 = 85.7% probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4.

For more on the binomial distribution, you can check brainly.com/question/24863377

7 0
2 years ago
I need help I am trying to find ft
Rus_ich [418]

1 foot = 12 inches

 divide 69 by 12

69/12 = 5.75 feet

7 0
3 years ago
Can someone plz help me
Illusion [34]
First rectangle:
Has 3 cubes in each 5 layers, and imagine it, so we have all dimension needed which is:
l=3 unit
w=1 unit
h=5 unit.
V=l×w×h
V=3×1×5
V=15 cubic inches.

Second rectangular:
Doing the same like that to get:
l=5 unit
w=1 unit
h=3 unit
V=15 cubic inches. As a result, there are no prism that are greater to each other, which mean that they have the same volume of 15 cubic inches. Hope it help!
6 0
3 years ago
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