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3 years ago

Question 2 of 25

Business

2 answers:

azamat3 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Explanation:

CD's are less liquid and tie up your $$ for a certain period of time, however, extend to you a higher interest rate.

Vika [28.1K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer: A: Less and higher

Explanation:

You might be interested in

How much money has to be invested at 5.1% interest compounded continuously to have $17,000 after 14 years?

andre [41]

We will use the formula; A = Pe^(r*t)
Given;
A = 17,000
r = 5.1%
t = 14
Solution;A = Pe^(r*t) Compounding continously
17,000 = Pe^(.051*14)
17,000/e^(.714) = P
$8324.59 = P
The money that has been invested at 5.1% interest and compounded contiounsly to have 17,000 after 14 years is $8324.59

8 0

3 years ago

After months of thinking about the new laptop she heard about from a friend, anna finally decides it’s time to buy it. In what s

inna [77]

The stage of the customer journey of Anna is the Purchase phase.

Awareness: the customer becomes familiar with the brand via channels, consisting of advertising and word-of-mouth. Consideration: realizing that they have a need that must be met, the customer actively considers whether or not to buy the product or service on offer. Purchase: the customer makes the purchase.

Customer's journey. is defined as the active research process someone goes through leading up to a purchase. It is called a journey because each one of your prospective customers will be at different points in their journey towards a purchase.

Learn more about the Purchase phase here brainly.com/question/27975123

#SPJ4

7 0

1 year ago

Common stock valuelong dash—Variable growth Personal Finance Problem

xenn [34]

Answer:

$24.18

Explanation:

Dividend for year 0 = $2.2

Dividend at year end 1 = $2.2

Dividend at year end 2 = $2.2(1 + .05) = 2.31

Dividend at year end 3 = $2.31 (1 + .05) = 2.4255

Dividend at year end 4 = $2.4255 (1 + .17)= 2.8378

Dividend at year end 5 = $2.8375 (1 + .09)= 3.0932

Dividend at year end 6 = $3.0932 (1 + .09) = 3.371

MPS = $\frac{D_{1} }{(1\ +\ k)^{1} } + \frac{D_{2} }{(1\ +\ k)^{2} } \ +\ \frac{D_{3} }{(1\ +\ k)^{3} } \ +\ \frac{D_{4} }{(1\ +\ k)^{4} } +\ \frac{D_{5} }{(1\ +\ k)^{5} } \ + \frac{1}{(1\ +\ k)^{5} } [\frac{D_{6} }{(k\ -\ g)\ ]}$

where MPS = Market price of share

D= Dividend for different years

k = Cost of equity

g= constant growth rate after year 5

putting values in above equation we get,

MPS = 1.864 + 1.65 + 1.478 + 1.463 + 1.352 + 0.4371 × 37.462

MPS = $24.18

The maximum price per share that an investor who requires a return of 18% should pay for Home Place Hotels common stock is <u>$24.18</u>

4 0

3 years ago

Which is the following one of the first things you should do when preparing to present yourself to an employee

kotegsom [21]

What are the options?

8 0

3 years ago

Each machine must be run by one of 19 cross-trained workers who are each available 35 hours per week. The plant has 10 type 1 ma

Mrac [35]

Answer:

The Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: $P=90X+120Y+150Z$

Constraints:

$2X+2Y+Z\leq 400$

$3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240$

$4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10$

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6$

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19$

Explanation:

As the question is not complete, the complete question is found online and is attached herewith.

Let the number of product 1 to be produced is X, that of product 2 is Y and product 3 is Z

so the maximizing function is the profit function which is given as

$P=90X+120Y+150Z$

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 10 type 1 machines so the total number of machine 1 hours are 40*10=400 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1, product 2 uses 2 machine hours of machine 1 and product 3 uses 1 hour of machine 1 so

$2X+2Y+Z\leq 400$

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 6 type 2 machines so the total number of machine 2 hours are 40*6=240 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 3 machine hours of machine 2, product 2 uses 4 machine hours of machine 2 and product 3 uses 6 hour of machine 2 so

$3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240$

Now as the number of hours in a week are 40 and there are a total of 8 type 3 machines so the total number of machine 3 hours are 40*8=320 hours

As from the given table product 1 uses 4 machine hours of machine 3, product 2 uses 6 machine hours of machine 3 and product 3 uses 5 hour of machine 3 so

$4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320$

Now as the machine 1 is used as 2X+2Y+Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10$

Now as the machine 2 is used as 3X+4Y+6Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6$

Now as the machine 3 is used as 4X+6Y+5Z in a week and the week is of 40 hours so the number of machines to be used are given as

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8$

Now the workers are available for 35 hours so the worker available at the machine 1 is given as

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}$

That of machine 2 is given as

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}$

That of machine 3 is given as

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}$

As the total number of workers is 19 so the constraint is given as

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19$

So the Linear programming model is given as below

Profit Function: $P=90X+120Y+150Z$

Constraints:

$2X+2Y+Z\leq 400$

$3X+4Y+6Z\leq 240$

$4X+6Y+5Z\leq 320$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{40}\leq 10$

$\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{40}\leq 6$

$\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{40}\leq 8$

$\dfrac{2X+2Y+Z}{35}+\dfrac{3X+4Y+6Z}{35}+\dfrac{4X+6Y+5Z}{35}\leq 19$

4 0

3 years ago