Because 1/2 ≠ 1/6.
We know that 1/6 < 1/2, so we can set up an equation to see how many copies are needed for them to be equal.
(1/6)x = 1/2
[(1/6)x] × 6 = [1/2] × 6
x = 6/2 = 3
This equation shows that 1/6 × 3 = 1/2, therefore we need 3 copies of 1/6 to equal 1 copy of 1/2.
Answer:
incorrect
Step-by-step explanation:
this is because it would be 1/2 and 1/6. you would have to multiply the bases for a probability of 1/12
Remmeber, you can do anything to an equation as long as you do it to both sides
for inequalities, if you multiply or divide both sides by a negive, flip the direction of the inequality sign
pemdas always applies
but also the commutative property and assiociative property
so
2(5y+13)-6<20
add 6 both sides
2(5y+13)<26
divide both sides by 2 (easier that distributing)
5y+13<13
minus 13 both sides
5y<0
y<0 is the solution
A=pq divided by 2.
I hoped this helped a little
Answer and Step-by-step explanation:
The circumference formula for a circle is:
C = 
Plug 35 in for r (radius) and solve.
C = 
So, approximately 219.9 
is the answer.
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