All categories

3 years ago

PLSSSS HELP END OF GRADING PERIOD IS TODAY

Mathematics

1 answer:

VMariaS [17]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

18,750

Step-by-step explanation:

If you add up all of the expenses you get 18,750. I hope this helps!

Do you give brainliest?

You might be interested in

What is 3n² = 243<br><br> I NEED THIS ANSWER QUICKLY!!!!

viva [34]

Answer:

n=9

Step-by-step explanation:

You use reverse PEMDAS.

First you would divide by 3 on both sides. This should give you:

n²=81

Then you would find $\sqrt{81}$ . Which is 9.

8 0

3 years ago

Explain how to find the absolute value of an interger

S_A_V [24]

The absolute value of an integer is the distance from zero. So, another way of thinking of is to ignore positive or negative. for example the absolute value of -126 is 126, same would go for positive 126.

7 0

3 years ago

Select the correct answer.which graph shows a line with a slope of 0?

dusya [7]

Step-by-step explanation:

the first video man and share with you search the Internet resources to help you find the best service providers to get your free and

4 0

2 years ago

Inverse Function In Exercise,analytically show that the functions are inverse functions.Then use the graphing utility to show th

Anna [14]

Step-by-step explanation:

We need to show whether

$f^{-1}(x) = g(x)$

$g^{-1}(x) = f(x)$

so we'll do either one of them,

we'll convert f(x) to f^-1(x) and lets see if it looks like g(x).

$f(x) = e^x - 1$

we can also write it as:

$y = e^x - 1$

now all we have to do is to make x the subject of the equation.

$y+1 = e^x$

$\ln{(y+1)} = x$

$x=\ln{(y+1)}$

now we'll interchange the variables

$y=\ln{(x+1)}$

this is the inverse of f(x)

$f^{-1}(x)=\ln{(x+1)}$

and it does equal to g(x)

$g(x)=\ln{(x+1)}$

Hence, both functions are inverse of each other!

This can be shown graphically too:

we can see that both functions are reflections of each other about the line y=x.

4 0

3 years ago

A distribution of probabilities for random outcomes of a bivariate or dichotomous random variable is called a Group of answer ch

slega [8]

A distribution of probabilities for random outcomes of bivariate or dichotomous random variables is called (A) binomial probability distribution.

<h3>What is a binomial probability distribution?</h3>

The binomial distribution with parameters n and p in probability theory and statistics is the discrete probability distribution of the number of successes in a succession of n separate experiments, each asking a yes-no question and each with its own Boolean-valued outcome: success or failure.

The binomial distribution is widely used to describe the number of successes in a sample of size n selected from a population of size N with replacement.
If the sampling is done without replacement, the draws are not independent, and the resulting distribution is hypergeometric rather than binomial.
Binomial probability distribution refers to a distribution of probabilities for random outcomes of bivariate or dichotomous random variables.

As the description itself says, binomial probability distribution refers to a distribution of probabilities for random outcomes of bivariate or dichotomous random variables.

Therefore, a distribution of probabilities for random outcomes of bivariate or dichotomous random variables is called (A) binomial probability distribution.

Know more about binomial probability distribution here:

brainly.com/question/9325204

#SPJ4

Complete question:

A distribution of probabilities for random outcomes of bivariate or dichotomous random variables is called a ______.

Group of answer choices

(A) binomial probability distribution

(B) distribution of expected values

(D) mathematical expectation

5 0

2 years ago