Answer:
.B. The amount of depreciation expense recognized in 2019 would be greater if Dinwiddie depreciates the car under the straight-line method than if the double declining balance method is used
Explanation:
The double-declining method recognizes higher depreciation amounts in the first years of an asset 's life. The method applies twice the rate of the straight-line method on a declining book value balances. In the latter years, the depreciation amount will be less because the book value will have declined considerably.
In this case, a useful life of six years attracts a straight-line depreciation rate of 16.6 % (1/6 x 100). the double-declining method will apply a rate of 33.2 %.
The straight-line method applies a constant rate throughout the use-life of an asset. The book value decreases at a constant rate, unlike in double -declining, where the book value decreases rapidly in the early years of the asset. 2019 will be the fourth year in this case. The fourth-year is in the latter stages of a six-year useful life.
According to liquidity preference theory, a drop-off in money demand for some ground other than a change in the price degree causes The interest rate to go down, so the aggregate demand shifts.
<h3>What is aggregate demand?</h3>
The total amount of goods and services produced in an economy is the measurement of the aggregate demand.
The aggregate demand is shown as the total amount of money is exchanged at the particular price level and point in time.
Thus, The interest rate to go down,
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Answer:
$10.49
Explanation:
The computation of the net asset value of the fund is shown below:
= (Market value of the assets - market value of the liabilities) ÷ number of oustanding shares
where,
Market value of assets is
= (200,000 × $35) + (300,000 × $40) + (400,000 × 20) + (600,000 × 25)
= $42,000,000
So, the net asset value of the fund is
= ($42,000,000 - $30,000) ÷ (4,000,000)
= $10.49
Answer:
the cap rate is 6%
Explanation:
The computation of the cap rate is as follows:
= Net operating Income ÷ Current market value of property
= $120,000 ÷ $2,000,000
= .06
= 6%
Hence, the cap rate is 6%
We simply divided the net operating income from the Current market value of property so that the cap rate could come
