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3 years ago

Why is it important to understand that the amount cash paid for taxes is different than the amount of income tax expense?

1 answer:

6 0

Answer: To know the amount of tax the business should pay from reported profit which is different from it's actual tax bill

Explanation:

Income tax expense could be described as what is calculated that the company owes in taxes according to accounting rules. They are reported on the income statement.

While Income tax payable is described as the actual amount the company owes in taxes based on the rules of tax code. They appear on the balance sheet of the company accounting documents until the bills are cleared off or paid.

The reason for understanding the difference is to know the amount of tax the business should pay from reported profit which is different from it's actual tax bill

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On January 2, 2017, a calendar-year corporation sold 5% bonds with a face value of $2500000. These bonds mature in five years, a

Oksanka [162]

Answer:

Consider the following explanation

Explanation:

Under Effective interest method, Interest calculated at the effective interest rate (i.e., the yield of the bond) is charged as an expense annually, and the payment made basis the Coupon rate.

In the given case, interest to be paid semi annually i.e, on June 30 and on December 31, will be $62,500 (i.e., 2,500,000 * 5% * 6/12).

On the basis of above, the interest expense to be charged in the 2017 can be calculated as follows: take a look to the attached archive.

As calculated above, the amount to be charged as interest expense for the year 2017 is (80,220 + 80,840 i.e.,) $ 161,060.

Download xlsx

3 0

3 years ago

Pat picked a card from a standard deck, looked at it, and then put it back. he then picked a second card. what is the probabilit

mezya [45]

16/52 maybe :) There are 52 card in the deck then the diamonds and jokers would make 16. Maybe I'm not really sure but maybe. Hope this helps!!

5 0

3 years ago

If speech is merely for amusement, it is a(n) _____ form of speech.

Minchanka [31]

Answer:

the answer is comedic :)

6 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

An investment offers $6,600 per year for 10 years, with the first payment occurring one year from now. If the required return is

Reika [66]

Answer:

Instructions are listed below

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

An investment offers $6,600 per year for 10 years, with the first payment occurring one year from now. The required return is 5 percent.

A) FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

FV= {6600*[(1.05^10)-1]}/0.05= $83,014.09

PV= FV/(1+i)^n= 83,014.09/1.05^10= $50,063.39

B) n=35

FV= {6600*[(1.05^35)-1]}/0.05= $596,114.03

PV= 596,114.03/1.05^35= $108,069.69

C) n=65

FV= {6600*[(1.05^65)-1]}/0.05= $3,014,866.87

PV= 3,014,866.87/ 1.05^65= $126,463.06

D) PV= 6600/0.05= $132,000

3 0

4 years ago

Exodus Limousine Company has $1,000 par value bonds outstanding at 15 percent interest. The bonds will mature in 30 years. Compu

nasty-shy [4]

Answer:

if YTM at 4% price : $2,902.1237

if YTM at 8% price : $1,788.0448

The bonds are above face value asthey offer a higher coupon payment than the market yield therefore the bond holders are willing to pay above theri face value

Explanation:

the market price of the bond will be the present value of coupo payment and maturity:

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 150.000

time 30

rate 0.04

$150 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-30} }{0.04} = PV\\$

PV $2,593.8050

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 30.00

rate 0.04

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.04)^{30} } = PV$

PV 308.32

PV c $2,593.8050

PV m $308.3187

Total $2,902.1237

No we repeat the process with the yield at 8%

$C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\$

C 150.000

time 30

rate 0.08

$150 \times \frac{1-(1+0.08)^{-30} }{0.08} = PV\\$

PV $1,688.6675

$\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV$

Maturity 1,000.00

time 30.00

rate 0.08

$\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.08)^{30} } = PV$

PV 99.38

PV c $1,688.6675

PV m $99.3773

Total $1,788.0448

7 0

3 years ago