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Agata [3.3K]
3 years ago
11

SCENARIO 9.1: Amy borrowed $20,000 from her parents to open a bagel shop. She pays her parents a 5% yearly return on the money t

hey lent her. Her other yearly fixed costs equal $9,000. Her variable costs equal $30,000. In her first year, Amy sold 40,000 dozen at a price of $1.50 per dozen. 45) Refer to Scenario 9.1. Amy's total fixed costs equal _____. 46) Refer to Scenario 9.1. Amy's total costs equal _______. 47) If revenues exceed ________, profit is ________.
Business
1 answer:
malfutka [58]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

45: $10,000

46: $40,000

47: $20,000

Explanation:

Total fixed cost of Amy =

TFC = yearly fixed cost + 5% of $20,000

TFC = $9,000 + $1,000

TFC = $10,000

Total cost =

TC = Variable cost + total fixed cost

TC = $30,000 + $10,000

TC = $40,000

The total profit she accrued is the difference between the total cost and the money she'd borrowed from her parents.

$40,000 - $20,000 = $20,000

Therefore, the total profit of Amy is $20,000

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If actual sales totaled $500,000 for the current year (40,000 units at $12.50 each) and planned sales were $495,000 (45,000 unit
irina [24]

Answer: <u>The answer is A. $60,000 increase.</u>

<u />

Explanation: 1: The actual units sold multiplied by the budgeted sale price is equal to a total of $440000 (40000 x 11 = $ 440000)

2: The actual units sold multiplied by the actual sale price is equal to $500000 (40,000 x 12.5 = $ 500,000)

3:<u> $500000 - $440000 = </u><u>$60000</u><u> increase by the unit price factor.</u>

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4 0
3 years ago
The following information pertains to the Frameworks Corporation for May. Calculate the cost of goods sold for the period:Beginn
ANTONII [103]

Answer:

The correct answer is D.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Beginning Finished Goods Inventory $19,500

Ending Finished Goods Inventory$18,000

Cost of Goods Manufactured $126,800

To calculate the cost of goods sold we need to use the following formula:

COGS= beginning finished inventory + cost of goods manufactured - ending finished inventory

COGS= 19,500 + 126,800 - 18,000= $128,300

6 0
3 years ago
The operational improvement cycle is referred to as the: a. 5S cycle b. FMEA cycle c. DMAIC cycle d. Generate - Integrate - Inte
Dimas [21]

Answer:

The operational improvement cycle is referred to as the:

c. DMAIC cycle

Explanation:

The DMAIC cycle involves continuous operational improvement.  The 'D' stands for 'to define' the process.  The 'M' stands for ' to measure' or quantify the performance process.  The 'A' stands for ' to analyze' performance to determine root causes.  The 'I' stands for 'to improve; the process.  The 'C' stands for control to achieve benefits.  These processes are the Sigma Six improvement processes that have been proven to yield improved organizational processes.

3 0
3 years ago
Sean Davis is the owner, president, and primary salesperson for Davis Manufacturing. Because of this, the company's profits are
Natali5045456 [20]

Answer:

The related cash flows to Sean are as follows;

a. $424,000

b. $592,000

c.$399,808

d. $512,885

Explanation:

In this question, we are asked to calculate cash flows to Davis manufacturing given that debt is issues and equity is issued for a number of hour-week

We proceed as follows;

a. For a 40 - hour week and Debt is issued

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated below as follows;

Cash Flow = EBIT - Interest on debt = $594,000 - ($1.7 million x 10%) = $424,000

b. For a 50 - hour week and Debt is issued

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated as follows;

Cash Flow = EBIT - Interest on debt = $762,000 - ($1.7 million x 10%) = $592,000

c. For a 40 - hour week and Equity is issued

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated as follows;

In this case, there will be no interest cost

The firm's value will be increased by the amount of infusion but ownership of sean will be diluted.

New ownership of Sean = $3.5 million / ($3.5 million + $1.7 million) = 0.67307692307

Mathematically, the cash flow is calculated as follows

Cash Flow to Sean = EBIT x new share = $594,000 x 0.67307692307 =  $399,808

d. For a 50 - hour week and Equity is issued

The calculation is as above and there is also no interest course

Cash Flow = EBIT x new share = $762,000 x 0.67307692307 =  $512,885

KINDLY NOTE EBIT IS EARNINGS BEFORE INTEREST AND TAXES

5 0
3 years ago
Sheridan Company had the following assets on January 1, 2022. Item Cost Purchase Date Useful Life (in years) Salvage Value Machi
Vlad [161]

Answer:

Jan 1

Dr Accumulated depreciation equipment 64,000

Cr Equipment 64,000

June 30

Dr Depreciation expenses 3,000

Cr Accumulated depreciation equipment 3,000

June 30

Dr Cash 11,300

Dr Accumulated depreciation equipment

37,300

Cr Gain on disposal 25,600

Cr Equipment 23,000

Dec 31

Dr Depreciation expenses 3,300

Cr Accumulated depreciation truck 3,300

Dec 31

Dr Loss on disposal of truck 9,600

Dr Accumulated depreciation 19,800

Cr Equipment 23,400

Explanation:

Sheridan Company Journal entries

Jan 1

Dr Accumulated depreciation equipment 64,000

Cr Equipment 64,000

June 30

Dr Depreciation expenses 3,000

Cr Accumulated depreciation equipment 3,000

June 30

Dr Cash 11,300

Dr Accumulated depreciation equipment

($23,000+$3,000+$11,300) 37,300

Cr Gain on disposal 25,600

Cr Equipment 23,000

Dec 31

Dr Depreciation expenses 3,300

($29,400-$3,000)/8

Cr Accumulated depreciation truck 3,300

Dec 31

Dr Loss on disposal of truck 9,600

($29,400- $19,800)

Dr Accumulated depreciation 19,800

($3,300×6)

Cr Equipment 23,400

8 0
3 years ago
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