Answer:
The correct answer is option C.
Explanation:
A decrease in the money supply would reduce the availability of credit in the market. The money supply curve will shift to the left. This would further cause the interest rate to increase.
This increase in the interest rate would increase the cost of borrowing. As a result, the cost of borrowing will increase. This will cause the planned investment to decline.
Since investment expenditure is a component of aggregate demand, a decline in the investment will cause the aggregate demand to decrease as well.
Answer:
See Below
Explanation:
Expected value is the sum of the products of the probability and payoff of each.
<u>Wager 1:</u>
probability of heads and tails, both is 0.5
Win = 440
Loose = 110
So,
Expected Value = 440(0.5) + (-110)(0.5) = 220 - 55 = $165
<u>Wager 2:</u>
Similar to wager 1
Win = 770
Loose = 220
So,
Expected value = 770(0.5) + (-220)(0.5) = 385 - 110 = $275
2nd wager is better, in this sense.
Hello,
A fact is something that has been learned.
I think, Im not 100% sure!
Answer:
Old Stock
Explanation:
The Dividend Reinvestment Plan is a platform where investors or shareholders in a company, reinvest the dividends they gained into more shares sold by the same company, most times without having to pay commissions.
Under the <em>Old stock dividend reinvestment plan, </em>an outside trustee, that is, a member of the board who is not an officer in the company, repurchases the company's existing shares in the stock market and then allocates the shares purchased among the stockholders. They sell the shares at market price. Most times, in order to encourage shareholders participation the company making the repurchase takes care of the commission fees.
Answer:
FV= $75,437.02
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Number of cash flows= 5
Cash flow= $10,000
Total number of periods= 10 years
Interest rate= 6% compounded annually
<u>First, we need to calculate the future value of the 5 cash flows in 5 years using the following formula:</u>
<u></u>
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {10,000*[(1.06^5) - 1]} / 0.06
FV= $56,370.93
<u>Now, the value at the end of 10 years:</u>
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
FV= 56,370.93*(1.06^5)
FV= $75,437.02
