621.67. First of all you want to convert the 16% to a .16 so you can multiply it. From then you can multiply 535.92 times .16 to find the amount of money that was taken off of the original price. The number you get from the previous equation you have to add to 535.92 to final original price.
2 More than 919 998 is equal to 920 000...I.e Nine hundred and twenty thousand..
It is simply the sum of 2 and 919 998.
Alright this equation has two big steps. First we need to find the price after it was marked up, then we need to take that number and find the discounted price.
To find the cost after a percent of it was added, we just need to multiply the two together and add.
=
$
23.50
+
(
$
23.50
⋅
(
63
%
100
)
)
(we divide by 100 to get the number out of a percent)
=
$
23.50
+
(
$
23.50
⋅
0.63
)
=
$
23.50
+
$
14.81
=
$
38.31
Ok now that we have the number after the price increase, we now need to find the final answer after a discount of
50
%
(do the exact same idea as above but switch the sign)
=
$
38.31
−
(
$
38.31
⋅
(
50
%
100
)
)
=
$
38.31
−
(
$
38.31
⋅
0.5
)
=
$
38.31
−
$
19.16
=
$
19.15
Answer:
5
Step-by-step explanation:
the second number
Please mark as brainliest
Answer:
Ball hits the ground after 4.5 sec
Step-by-step explanation:
Let a -1, so that the leading coefficient is positive
So our quadratic is
The key coefficients of two binomial variables can be 1 and 16, or 2 and 8, or 4 and 4, for the leading coefficient of 16.
Yet they can't actually be 4 and 4 because the linear (x) term coefficient has to be a multiple of 4, which it isn't and leading coefficients 1 and 16 on the binomial factors is not likely.
So, 2 and 8 taken as the leading coefficients of two binomial factors.
For constant 405, possible factorizations are 
Taking first factor, thus we find negative value for given time t. But second time equivalent to zero gives the value of 4.5 for t
Thus ball hits the ground after 4.5 sec
.
