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agasfer [191]
2 years ago
6

Can yall please help lol

Mathematics
2 answers:
const2013 [10]2 years ago
4 0

Answer:

1.) Triangle ABC is congruent to Triangle CDA because of the SAS theorem

2.) Triangle JHG is congruent to Triangle LKH because of the SSS theorem

Step-by-step explanation:

Alright. Let's start with the 1st figure. How do we prove that triangles ABC and CDA (they are named properly) are congruent? First, we can see that segments BC and AD have congruent markings, so that can help us. We also see a parallel marking for those segments as well, meaning that the diagonal AC is also a transversal for those parallel segments. That means we can say that angle CAD is congruent to angle ACB because of the alternate interior angles theorem. Then, the 2 triangles also share the side AC (reflexive property).

So, we have 2 congruent sides and 1 congruent angle for each triangle. And in the way they are listed, this makes the triangles congruent by the SAS theorem since the angle is adjacent to the 2 sides that are congruent.

The second figure is way easier. As you can clearly see by the congruent markings on the diagram, all the sides on one triangle are congruent to the other. So, since there are 3 sides congruent, we can say the triangles JHG and LKH are congruent by the SSS theorem.

svetoff [14.1K]2 years ago
3 0

Step-by-step explanation:

a)ASA .

if any 2 angles and a side of a triangle are equal to the corresponding the angles and side of the other triangle , then the two triangles are congruent.

BC : AD .

b) SSS

IF the 3 sides of a triangle are equal to the 3 corresponding sides of the other triangle ,then the two triangles are congruent.

JG:HL

JH :LK

HG:HK

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The area of a rectangle is 48 inches.the width of the rectangle is 12. What the length
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Answer:A=WL

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Step-by-step explanation:

48=12*x

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Samples of 20 parts from a metal punching process are selected every hour. Typically, 1% of the parts require rework. Let X deno
Roman55 [17]

Answer:

a) P(X>np+3\sqrt{np(1-p)}=0.017

b) P(x>1)=0.190

c) P(Y>1)=0.651

Step-by-step explanation:

This a binomial experiment where success is denoted by parts that need rework.

X ∼ B(n, p); n = 20; p = 0.01

The expected value of X is: E(X) = np =20×0.01= 0.2

The variance is: Var(X) = np(1 − p) = 0.2 × 0.99 = 0.198,

The standard deviation SD(X)= \sqrt{0.198} ≈ 0.445

a) P(X>np+3\sqrt{np(1-p)}=P(X>0.2+3×0.445)=P(X>1.535)=P(X≥2)

Probability function is given by:

\frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!} *p^x*(1-p)^{(n-x)}

P(X≥2)=1-P(X<2)=1-P(X=1)-P(X=0)= 1 - \frac{20!}{1!(20-1)!} *(0.01)^{1}*(1-0.01)^{(20-1)}-\frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.01)^{0}*(1-0.01)^{(20-0)}

P(X≥2)=1-0.165-0.818=0.017

b) p=0.04

P(x>1)=P(x≥2)= 1 - P(x=1) - P(x=0)= 1 - \frac{20!}{0!(20-1)!} *(0.04)^{1}*(1-0.04)^{(20-1)} - \frac{20!}{0!(20-0)!} *(0.04)^{0}*(1-0.04)^{(20-0)}

P(x>1)= 1 - 0.368 - 0.442=0.190

c) In this case we consider p=0.19 (Probability that X exceeds 1)

In this experiment Y is the number of hours and n= 5 hours.

Then, we check the probability in each hour:

P(Y>1)=1- P(Y=0)

P(Y=0)=\frac{5!}{0!(5-0)!} *(0.19)^{0}*(1-0.19)^{(5-0)}=0.349

P(Y>1)=1-0.349=0.651

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\bold{\bold{a(n) \ = \ a(n \ + \ 1) \ + \ 4}}

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