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Lubov Fominskaja [6]
3 years ago
10

There is a bag filled with 4 blue, 3 red and 5 green marbles.

Mathematics
2 answers:
Simora [160]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

3 out of 12 chance i believe.

Bond [772]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

\frac{3}{8}

Step-by-step explanation:

We'll need to use casework, since the problem stipulates there needs to be exactly one red drawn. Because we're drawing two marbles, we can either draw a red one first or a red one second. With casework, we'll add the probability a red marble is drawn the first draw and the probability a red marble is drawn the second draw.

There are 4+3+5=12 marbles total. The probability of drawing a red marble is equal to the number of red marbles (3) divided by the total number of marbles (12). Therefore, the probability of getting a marble on the first draw is 3/12=1/4. Since the marble is replaced, there are still 12 marbles, 4 blue, 3 red, and 5 green, for the second draw. We want to add the probability a red marble is drawn the first draw to the probability a red marble is drawn the second draw. Therefore, for the second draw, let's find the chances of not choosing a red marble. There is a 9/12 chance that the marble chosen is not red. Therefore, the probably of this case happening is \frac{1}{4}\cdot \frac{9}{12}=\frac{9}{48}.

This case has the exact same probability as the other case, where a non-red marble is chosen the first draw and the red marble is now chosen the second draw (9/12 chance to choose a non-red marble and 1/4 chance to choose a red marble).

Add these cases up:

\frac{9}{48}+\frac{9}{48}=\frac{18}{48}=\boxed{\frac{3}{8}}

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Hello,

h=k*w/p; if w=4,and p=6 then h=2
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<h3>Answer: 1227.50 dollars</h3>

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Explanation:

The simple interest formula to use is

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