Answer:
a) 29
b) 0
c) 7
d) 3/8
Step-by-step explanation:
Whenever you're facing a clock maths problem, the solution always have to be < to the number of hours in the given clock. If it's > the number of hours of the given clock, you subtract the number of hours until you get a result <= the number of clock hours.
If the result is negative, you add the clock hours.
a) 21 - 33 = -12 , so -12 + 41 = 29
b) 13 * 4 = 52, then do 52 - 52 = 0, since answer has to be < 52.
c) 11+19 = 30, 30 - 23 = 7
d) 3/8 = 3/8, since 3/8 <= 15, you're also fine.
For a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us, with n=36 and p as 0.23, we can approximate p hat by a normal distribution.
Since n=36 , p=0.23 , thus q= 1-p = 1-0.23=0.77
therefore,
n*p= 36*0.23 =8.28>5
n*q = 36*0.77=27.22>5
and therefore, p hat can be approximated by a normal random variable, because n*p>5 and n*q>5.
The question is incomplete, a possible complete question is:
Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
Suppose n = 36 and p = 0.23. Can we approximate p hat by a normal distribution? Why? (Use 2 decimal places.)
n*p = ?
n*q = ?
Learn to know more about binomial experiments at
brainly.com/question/1580153
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Answer:
x = 20
Step-by-step explanation:
Since ΔACB ≅ ΔDCE then ∠A ≅ ∠D, that is
3x - 10 = 2x + 10 ( subtract 2x from both sides )
x - 10 = 10 ( add 10 to both sides )
x = 20
The answer to this question would be true.
An odd number wouldn't have any 2 in their factor because it is the definition of odd number, can't be divided by 2. Since they have no probability of having factor 2, then their GCF would not become an even number.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
<u>Given equation</u>
<u>Solving for h</u>
- A=1/2(B₁+B₂)h
- 2A = (B₁+B₂)h
- 2A/(B₁+B₂)= h
- h = 2A/(B₁+B₂)
