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suter [353]
3 years ago
13

At the end of a​ party, 3/4 cup of dip is left. Jim divides 4/7 of the leftover dip equally between 2 friends. How much dip does

each friend​ get?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Vesnalui [34]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

First, we need to find the amount of dip that was divided amount the two friends.

We know that it is 4/7 of the left dip  

therefore:

amount divided among the two friends = (4/7) x (3/4) = 3/7 of the original amount of dip.

This amount is divided among two friends,

therefore:

amount that each friend gets = (3/7) / (2) = 3/14 = 0.2 of the amount of dip

tell me if this is completely wrong because i'm not good at this

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olasank [31]

5/22 is the fraction of girls to boys and as a decimal it is 2.3 rounded and not rounded is 2.27 repeated.


4 0
3 years ago
Math again sadly i need help on
dalvyx [7]

Answer:

13x+12

Step-by-step explanation:

27x-14x=13

+12 because there is nothing else there

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3 years ago
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Find the amount of interest payable if $400 is borrowed at 14% interest and is to be repaid in 6 months
Shtirlitz [24]

Answer:

The amount of interest payable after 6 months is $28.

Step-by-step explanation:

Here, the Principal amount  borrowed = $400

Rate of Interest  = 14%

Time = 6 months  = 6 / 12 years  = 0.5 year

Now, SIMPLE INTEREST = \frac{P \times R \times T}{100}

So, here SI  = SI = \frac{400 \times 14 \times 0.5}{100}   =  28

or, SI = $28

Hence, the amount of interest payable after 6 months is $28.

4 0
3 years ago
g: Consider the following game. A coin is flipped. If it lands tails we stop playing and winnothing. If it lands heads we spin a
galben [10]

Answer:

E[W] = $25 (assuming the currency is in dollars)

Var(W) = 1041.67

Step-by-step explanation:

Probability of winning first starts with the coin toss.

For a win, the coin needs to land on heads.

Probability of that = 1/2 = 0.5

Then probability of winning any amount = 1/100 = 0.01

Total probability of winning any amount = 0.5 × 0.01 = 0.005

But expected value is given by

E(X) = Σ xᵢpᵢ

where xᵢ is each amount that could be won

pᵢ is the probability of each amount to be won and it is the same for all the possible winnings = 0.005

So,

E(W) = Σ 0.005 xᵢ

Summing from 0 to 100 (0 indicating getting a tail from the coin toss). This could be done with dome faster with an integral sign

E(W) = ∫ 0.005 x dx

Integrating from 0 to 100

E(W) = [0.005 x²/2]¹⁰⁰₀

E(W) = [0.0025 x²]¹⁰⁰₀ = 0.0025(100² - 0²) = 0.0025 × 10000 = $25

Variance is given by

Variance = Var(X) = Σxᵢ²pᵢ − μ²

μ = expected value

We calculate the expression, Σxᵢ²pᵢ which is another sum from 0 to 100

Σxᵢ²pᵢ = Σ 0.005xᵢ²

Σ 0.005 xᵢ² = ∫ 0.005 x² dx

Integrating from 0 to 100

∫ 0.005 x² dx = [0.005 x³/3]¹⁰⁰₀ = [0.1667x³]¹⁰⁰₀ = 0.1667(100³ - 0³) = 1666.67

Var(W) = 1666.67 - 25² = 1666.67 - 625 = 1041.67.

5 0
3 years ago
I need help plz find m M
Firlakuza [10]

Answer:

60°

I think that answer

8 0
3 years ago
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