Answer:
The correct answer is letter "B": Preparing financial statements such as the balance sheet, income statement, and statement of cash flows.
Explanation:
A trial balance is a worksheet listing the debit and credit balances of all the ledger accounts for an entity. Under accounting theory, the total of all the debits must equal the total of all the credits. Since the trial balance is a list of all the accounts it serves as an accuracy check before the company prepares the financial statements including the <em>Balance sheet, Income </em>and <em>Cash Flows Statements</em>.
In the long run, perfectly competitive firms will react to profits by increasing production.
Firms in a perfectly competitive world earn zero profit in the long run. While firms can earn accounting profits in the long run, they cannot earn economic profits.
In the long run, perfectly competitive firms will react to profits by decreasing production. CORRECT: In the long run, perfectly competitive firms will respond to losses by exiting the market. In the long run, perfectly competitive firms will respond to losses by reducing production.
A perfectly competitive market achieves long‐run equilibrium when all firms are earning zero economic profits and when the number of firms in the market is not changing.
In the long run, profits and losses are eliminated because an infinite number of firms are producing infinitely divisible, homogeneous products. Firms experience no barriers to entry and all consumers have perfect information.
Learn more about a perfectly competitive firm here: brainly.com/question/25327136
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A demand deposit is an account with a bank or other financial institution that allows the depositor to withdraw his or her funds from the account without warning.
Answer is D. checking account as they allow the depositor to withdraw funds at any time.
Answer:
$39.40
Explanation:
According to the situation, the solution is as follows
The Net asset value of the fund is
= (Current worth of portfolio - liabilities) ÷ (outstanding shares)
= ($200 million - $3 million) ÷ (5 million shares)
= $39.40
Basically we applied the above formula in order to determine the net asset value of the fund.
Answer:
y = 50 %
Explanation:
As per the data given in the question, computation are as follows:
Expected return = y × expected rate of return for portfolio + (1 - y) × rate of T-bills
By putting the value from the given data in the above formula, we get
0.09 = y×0.12 + (1 - y)×0.06
0.09 = 0.12y + 0.06 - 0.06y
0.03 = 0.06 y
y = 0.50
= 50%