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3 years ago

For the diagram below, which of the following represents the length of line MN to the nearest tenth?

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ksenya-84 [330]3 years ago

5 0

<h2>Answer:</h2>

<h3>( 4 ) 28.6</h3><h2>Step-by-step explanation:</h2>

<h2>HOPE IT HELPS !!!!</h2>

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Hey can you please help me posted picture of question

sasho [114]

The correct answer is option D.

F(G(x)) denotes the composition of the two functions F(x) and G(x). The composition of two functions result in x, if the two functions are inverses of each other. So in this case F(x) and G(x) will be the inverse of each other. So option D is the correct answer.

7 0

3 years ago

If a group of independent variables are not significant individually but are significant as a group at a specified level of sign

ycow [4]

Answer:

D) collinearity

Step-by-step explanation:

Collinearity occurs when a few of the independent variables are related or match up. Collinearity increases the large proportion the variance of an estimated regression coefficient which leads to certain regression coefficient having wrong signs. It is used to explain the relationship between two variables.

3 0

3 years ago

The number of typing errors made by a typist has a Poisson distribution with an average of three errors per page. If more than t

damaskus [11]

Answer:

0.6472 = 64.72% probability that a randomly selected page does not need to be retyped.

Step-by-step explanation:

In a Poisson distribution, the probability that X represents the number of successes of a random variable is given by the following formula:

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

In which

x is the number of sucesses

e = 2.71828 is the Euler number

$\mu$ is the mean in the given interval.

Poisson distribution with an average of three errors per page

This means that $\mu = 3$

What is the probability that a randomly selected page does not need to be retyped?

Probability of at most 3 errors, so:

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3)$

In which

$P(X = x) = \frac{e^{-\mu}*\mu^{x}}{(x)!}$

$P(X = 0) = \frac{e^{-3}*3^{0}}{(0)!} = 0.0498$

$P(X = 1) = \frac{e^{-3}*3^{1}}{(1)!} = 0.1494$

$P(X = 2) = \frac{e^{-3}*3^{2}}{(2)!} = 0.2240$

$P(X = 3) = \frac{e^{-3}*3^{3}}{(3)!} = 0.2240$

Then

$P(X \leq 3) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) + P(X = 3) = 0.0498 + 0.1494 + 0.2240 + 0.2240 = 0.6472$

0.6472 = 64.72% probability that a randomly selected page does not need to be retyped.

3 0

3 years ago

What is 20% of 5 Please Help

Softa [21]

Hello there!

Start by asking yourself:"How to find the percentage of a number?"

We need to use the equation y = P% * x

In this case, the y is 20%

Y = P% * X

Y = 20% * X

Now we need to convert the percentage to decimal

P = 20%/100

P = 0.2

Then go back to the equation

Y= 0.2 * 5

Y = 1

The answer is 1

I hope the steps are easy to understand and hopefully the answer helps!

As always, I'm glad to help you today!

4 0

3 years ago

G(n)=-4n+2; find g(8)<br>

yarga [219]

Answer:

-30

Step-by-step explanation:

In g(8) the 8 = n. So, substitute 8 in for n in the expression -4n + 2

g(8) = -4(8) + 2 = -32 + 2 = -30

4 0

3 years ago

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