2 years ago

Njhgfdszdfghjkllllllklklk

Mathematics

1 answer:

LuckyWell [14K]2 years ago

7 0

Answer:

dfgfgyhjfyhujlkmnjhg lol-

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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ZanzabumX [31]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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morpeh [17]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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In a particular region, for families with a combined income of $75,000 or more, 15% of these families have no children, 35% of t

SCORPION-xisa [38]

Answer:

The probability distribution for x:"number of children per family for this income group" is:

$\text{P(x=0)}=0.15\\\\\text{P(x=1)}=0.35\\\\\text{P(x=2)}=0.45\\\\\text{P(x=3)}=0.05\\\\$

Step-by-step explanation:

With the information given we have the relative frequencies of each category.

We know:

$\text{P(x=0)}=0.15\\\\\text{P(x=1)}=0.35\\\\\text{P(x=2)}=0.45\\\\\text{P(x=3)}=0.05\\\\$

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3 years ago