Answer:
I guess it could. If you had like a graph of their financial status increasing. Speaking of which thatd the information you would need. You would need to be able to see their finances.
One thing you have to be clear about is which war. I'm taking it to be WWI.
There was a cash crunch after WWI. France was not any kind of a problem with the United States. It's not B.
I better get to the point. It has to do with the fact that the United States couldn't sell an abundance of manufactured goods. A has to do with that, but it wasn't exactly a decline in the manufacturing industry. It was that she couldn't sell what she had in inventory.
Inflation didn't become a problem in a post WWI environment. In fact, the problem was deflation and unemployment in the 30s, but that is a decade away from this question.
This is one of those questions that a guess is as good as an answer. Britain didn't import which is the same thing as a trade imbalance. I would pick E but I think that D is very possible. They are both worded the wrong way.There was a drop off in American Exports. And Farm prices cratered. Does that mean that Americans were buying more British goods. It is not D if America couldn't sell anything to Britain.
That makes E true. I'd pick E, but there's lots of reasons to pick almost anything else except B.
Answer:
"By stipulating and observing four main treaties, the relationship between Rome and Carthage was one of tolerance for centuries. Carthage and Rome also concluded two treaties to end the First and Second Punic War in 241 BC and 201 BC, by which time the relationship between the powers had changed considerably."
Explanation:
Answer:
The basic causes of the decline of the landed aristocracy are clear enough: the collapse of agriculture and the march of democracy. The first was the more important
