2 years ago

Can someone explain this to me??

Mathematics

1 answer:

SOVA2 [1]2 years ago

8 0

Answer:

Yes. g⁻¹(x) = f(x).

Step-by-step explanation:

Let y = ∛x - 1.

Rearrange to solve for x:

y+1 = ∛x

(y+1)³ = x

Swap x and y:

(x+3)³ = y

g⁻¹(x) = (x+3)³ = f(x)

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